Can we find an unbiased estimator of $pi$?

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Suppose we want to estimate $pi$. We adopt the following strategy. We generate $n$ iid observations $Z_1,Z_2,...,Z_n$ from the unit disk $D=(x,y):x^2+y^2<1$ and let $R=(x,y):-dfrac1sqrt2leq x,yleq dfrac1sqrt2$ be a square inside $D$. Let $T$ be the number of times a generated observation falls inside $R$. Let $I=max1leq ileq n:Z_iin R$ and define $I=0$ if no observation falls inside $R$.
I am supposed to find an unbiased estimator of $pi$ using $T$ and $I$. I have made certain observations. It is clear that $Tsim Bin(n,dfrac2pi)$. I have also found that $P(I=k)=P(Z_kin R,Z_jnotin R,j>k)=dfrac2pi(1-dfrac2pi)^n-k$ if $1leq kleq n$ and $P(I=0)=(1-dfrac2pi)^n$.
$E(I)$ is turning out to be a pretty nasty thing to compute. How can we use $T$ and $I$ to compute a function $f(T,I)$ with $E(f(T,I))=pi$?
probability-distributions random-variables simulation
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up vote
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Suppose we want to estimate $pi$. We adopt the following strategy. We generate $n$ iid observations $Z_1,Z_2,...,Z_n$ from the unit disk $D=(x,y):x^2+y^2<1$ and let $R=(x,y):-dfrac1sqrt2leq x,yleq dfrac1sqrt2$ be a square inside $D$. Let $T$ be the number of times a generated observation falls inside $R$. Let $I=max1leq ileq n:Z_iin R$ and define $I=0$ if no observation falls inside $R$.
I am supposed to find an unbiased estimator of $pi$ using $T$ and $I$. I have made certain observations. It is clear that $Tsim Bin(n,dfrac2pi)$. I have also found that $P(I=k)=P(Z_kin R,Z_jnotin R,j>k)=dfrac2pi(1-dfrac2pi)^n-k$ if $1leq kleq n$ and $P(I=0)=(1-dfrac2pi)^n$.
$E(I)$ is turning out to be a pretty nasty thing to compute. How can we use $T$ and $I$ to compute a function $f(T,I)$ with $E(f(T,I))=pi$?
probability-distributions random-variables simulation
1
Define $f(T,I) = pi$ for all $T, I$.
â Michael
Sep 2 at 5:31
1
A natural idea is to consider $hatpi=2n/T$... except that $P(T=0)ne0$. Any idea to adapt this?
â Did
Sep 2 at 5:41
1
You need to define more clearly what we're allowed to use. I take it it's implied that we're not allowed to use $pi$; otherwise @Michael's answer is clearly optimal. Are we allowed to use $n$? If so, you can drop $I$, since $T$ is a sufficient statistic.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:16
You can get properly sized parentheses, braces etc. that adjust to their content by preceding them withleftandright.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:17
Of course we cannot use $pi$, we are estimating it! We are allowed to use $n$. But I don't see why $T$ is sufficient.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Suppose we want to estimate $pi$. We adopt the following strategy. We generate $n$ iid observations $Z_1,Z_2,...,Z_n$ from the unit disk $D=(x,y):x^2+y^2<1$ and let $R=(x,y):-dfrac1sqrt2leq x,yleq dfrac1sqrt2$ be a square inside $D$. Let $T$ be the number of times a generated observation falls inside $R$. Let $I=max1leq ileq n:Z_iin R$ and define $I=0$ if no observation falls inside $R$.
I am supposed to find an unbiased estimator of $pi$ using $T$ and $I$. I have made certain observations. It is clear that $Tsim Bin(n,dfrac2pi)$. I have also found that $P(I=k)=P(Z_kin R,Z_jnotin R,j>k)=dfrac2pi(1-dfrac2pi)^n-k$ if $1leq kleq n$ and $P(I=0)=(1-dfrac2pi)^n$.
$E(I)$ is turning out to be a pretty nasty thing to compute. How can we use $T$ and $I$ to compute a function $f(T,I)$ with $E(f(T,I))=pi$?
probability-distributions random-variables simulation
Suppose we want to estimate $pi$. We adopt the following strategy. We generate $n$ iid observations $Z_1,Z_2,...,Z_n$ from the unit disk $D=(x,y):x^2+y^2<1$ and let $R=(x,y):-dfrac1sqrt2leq x,yleq dfrac1sqrt2$ be a square inside $D$. Let $T$ be the number of times a generated observation falls inside $R$. Let $I=max1leq ileq n:Z_iin R$ and define $I=0$ if no observation falls inside $R$.
I am supposed to find an unbiased estimator of $pi$ using $T$ and $I$. I have made certain observations. It is clear that $Tsim Bin(n,dfrac2pi)$. I have also found that $P(I=k)=P(Z_kin R,Z_jnotin R,j>k)=dfrac2pi(1-dfrac2pi)^n-k$ if $1leq kleq n$ and $P(I=0)=(1-dfrac2pi)^n$.
$E(I)$ is turning out to be a pretty nasty thing to compute. How can we use $T$ and $I$ to compute a function $f(T,I)$ with $E(f(T,I))=pi$?
probability-distributions random-variables simulation
probability-distributions random-variables simulation
asked Sep 2 at 4:53
Landon Carter
7,19311541
7,19311541
1
Define $f(T,I) = pi$ for all $T, I$.
â Michael
Sep 2 at 5:31
1
A natural idea is to consider $hatpi=2n/T$... except that $P(T=0)ne0$. Any idea to adapt this?
â Did
Sep 2 at 5:41
1
You need to define more clearly what we're allowed to use. I take it it's implied that we're not allowed to use $pi$; otherwise @Michael's answer is clearly optimal. Are we allowed to use $n$? If so, you can drop $I$, since $T$ is a sufficient statistic.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:16
You can get properly sized parentheses, braces etc. that adjust to their content by preceding them withleftandright.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:17
Of course we cannot use $pi$, we are estimating it! We are allowed to use $n$. But I don't see why $T$ is sufficient.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1
Define $f(T,I) = pi$ for all $T, I$.
â Michael
Sep 2 at 5:31
1
A natural idea is to consider $hatpi=2n/T$... except that $P(T=0)ne0$. Any idea to adapt this?
â Did
Sep 2 at 5:41
1
You need to define more clearly what we're allowed to use. I take it it's implied that we're not allowed to use $pi$; otherwise @Michael's answer is clearly optimal. Are we allowed to use $n$? If so, you can drop $I$, since $T$ is a sufficient statistic.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:16
You can get properly sized parentheses, braces etc. that adjust to their content by preceding them withleftandright.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:17
Of course we cannot use $pi$, we are estimating it! We are allowed to use $n$. But I don't see why $T$ is sufficient.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 6:46
1
1
Define $f(T,I) = pi$ for all $T, I$.
â Michael
Sep 2 at 5:31
Define $f(T,I) = pi$ for all $T, I$.
â Michael
Sep 2 at 5:31
1
1
A natural idea is to consider $hatpi=2n/T$... except that $P(T=0)ne0$. Any idea to adapt this?
â Did
Sep 2 at 5:41
A natural idea is to consider $hatpi=2n/T$... except that $P(T=0)ne0$. Any idea to adapt this?
â Did
Sep 2 at 5:41
1
1
You need to define more clearly what we're allowed to use. I take it it's implied that we're not allowed to use $pi$; otherwise @Michael's answer is clearly optimal. Are we allowed to use $n$? If so, you can drop $I$, since $T$ is a sufficient statistic.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:16
You need to define more clearly what we're allowed to use. I take it it's implied that we're not allowed to use $pi$; otherwise @Michael's answer is clearly optimal. Are we allowed to use $n$? If so, you can drop $I$, since $T$ is a sufficient statistic.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:16
You can get properly sized parentheses, braces etc. that adjust to their content by preceding them with
left and right.â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:17
You can get properly sized parentheses, braces etc. that adjust to their content by preceding them with
left and right.â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:17
Of course we cannot use $pi$, we are estimating it! We are allowed to use $n$. But I don't see why $T$ is sufficient.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 6:46
Of course we cannot use $pi$, we are estimating it! We are allowed to use $n$. But I don't see why $T$ is sufficient.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
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I assume $Z_i_i=1^n$ are i.i.d. vectors uniformly distributed over the unit disc in $mathbbR^2$.
If you are seeking something more than my $f(T,I)=pi$ answer, then I think you are on a wild goose chase. That is because you suggest an answer can be given for any positive integer $n$, which would include $n=1$.
In the case $n=1$ we have $T=Isim mboxBernoulli$ with $P[T=1]=p=2/pi$. If you want a function $f(T)$ such that $E[f(T)]=pi$, you must find $f(0)$ and $f(1)$, such that
$$ (1-2/pi)f(0) + (2/pi)f(1) = pi$$
Thus
$$ (pi-2)f(0) + 2f(1)=pi^2 $$
Now if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are rational numbers, it would contradict the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
So we are forced to make irrational choices for $f(0)$ and/or $f(1)$, in which case why not just choose $f(0)=f(1)=pi$?
More generally, for any positive integer $n$ we seek a rational-valued function $f(t,i)$ such that
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)(2/pi)^t(1-2/pi)^n-t c(t,i)=pi$$
where $c(t,i)$ is the (integer) number of ways to have $t$ successes with the last success at index $i$. Multiplying this equation by $pi^n$ gives
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i) 2^t(pi-2)^n-tc(t,i) = pi^n+1$$
Hence the equation
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)2^t(x-2)^n-tc(t,i)=x^n+1$$
is a polynomial equation with rational coefficients for which $pi$ is a root, again contradicting the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
On the other hand I observe:
i) With an infinite number of observations $Z_i_i=1^infty$, the expected number of observations until the first one lands in the square is $1/p = pi/2$.
ii) If we define a larger square $(x,y):-1leq x,yleq 1$ that contains the unit disc, and generate a random vector that is uniformly distributed over that square, then the probability this vector lies in the unit disc is $pi/4$.
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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up vote
1
down vote
I assume $Z_i_i=1^n$ are i.i.d. vectors uniformly distributed over the unit disc in $mathbbR^2$.
If you are seeking something more than my $f(T,I)=pi$ answer, then I think you are on a wild goose chase. That is because you suggest an answer can be given for any positive integer $n$, which would include $n=1$.
In the case $n=1$ we have $T=Isim mboxBernoulli$ with $P[T=1]=p=2/pi$. If you want a function $f(T)$ such that $E[f(T)]=pi$, you must find $f(0)$ and $f(1)$, such that
$$ (1-2/pi)f(0) + (2/pi)f(1) = pi$$
Thus
$$ (pi-2)f(0) + 2f(1)=pi^2 $$
Now if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are rational numbers, it would contradict the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
So we are forced to make irrational choices for $f(0)$ and/or $f(1)$, in which case why not just choose $f(0)=f(1)=pi$?
More generally, for any positive integer $n$ we seek a rational-valued function $f(t,i)$ such that
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)(2/pi)^t(1-2/pi)^n-t c(t,i)=pi$$
where $c(t,i)$ is the (integer) number of ways to have $t$ successes with the last success at index $i$. Multiplying this equation by $pi^n$ gives
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i) 2^t(pi-2)^n-tc(t,i) = pi^n+1$$
Hence the equation
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)2^t(x-2)^n-tc(t,i)=x^n+1$$
is a polynomial equation with rational coefficients for which $pi$ is a root, again contradicting the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
On the other hand I observe:
i) With an infinite number of observations $Z_i_i=1^infty$, the expected number of observations until the first one lands in the square is $1/p = pi/2$.
ii) If we define a larger square $(x,y):-1leq x,yleq 1$ that contains the unit disc, and generate a random vector that is uniformly distributed over that square, then the probability this vector lies in the unit disc is $pi/4$.
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I assume $Z_i_i=1^n$ are i.i.d. vectors uniformly distributed over the unit disc in $mathbbR^2$.
If you are seeking something more than my $f(T,I)=pi$ answer, then I think you are on a wild goose chase. That is because you suggest an answer can be given for any positive integer $n$, which would include $n=1$.
In the case $n=1$ we have $T=Isim mboxBernoulli$ with $P[T=1]=p=2/pi$. If you want a function $f(T)$ such that $E[f(T)]=pi$, you must find $f(0)$ and $f(1)$, such that
$$ (1-2/pi)f(0) + (2/pi)f(1) = pi$$
Thus
$$ (pi-2)f(0) + 2f(1)=pi^2 $$
Now if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are rational numbers, it would contradict the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
So we are forced to make irrational choices for $f(0)$ and/or $f(1)$, in which case why not just choose $f(0)=f(1)=pi$?
More generally, for any positive integer $n$ we seek a rational-valued function $f(t,i)$ such that
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)(2/pi)^t(1-2/pi)^n-t c(t,i)=pi$$
where $c(t,i)$ is the (integer) number of ways to have $t$ successes with the last success at index $i$. Multiplying this equation by $pi^n$ gives
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i) 2^t(pi-2)^n-tc(t,i) = pi^n+1$$
Hence the equation
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)2^t(x-2)^n-tc(t,i)=x^n+1$$
is a polynomial equation with rational coefficients for which $pi$ is a root, again contradicting the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
On the other hand I observe:
i) With an infinite number of observations $Z_i_i=1^infty$, the expected number of observations until the first one lands in the square is $1/p = pi/2$.
ii) If we define a larger square $(x,y):-1leq x,yleq 1$ that contains the unit disc, and generate a random vector that is uniformly distributed over that square, then the probability this vector lies in the unit disc is $pi/4$.
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
I assume $Z_i_i=1^n$ are i.i.d. vectors uniformly distributed over the unit disc in $mathbbR^2$.
If you are seeking something more than my $f(T,I)=pi$ answer, then I think you are on a wild goose chase. That is because you suggest an answer can be given for any positive integer $n$, which would include $n=1$.
In the case $n=1$ we have $T=Isim mboxBernoulli$ with $P[T=1]=p=2/pi$. If you want a function $f(T)$ such that $E[f(T)]=pi$, you must find $f(0)$ and $f(1)$, such that
$$ (1-2/pi)f(0) + (2/pi)f(1) = pi$$
Thus
$$ (pi-2)f(0) + 2f(1)=pi^2 $$
Now if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are rational numbers, it would contradict the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
So we are forced to make irrational choices for $f(0)$ and/or $f(1)$, in which case why not just choose $f(0)=f(1)=pi$?
More generally, for any positive integer $n$ we seek a rational-valued function $f(t,i)$ such that
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)(2/pi)^t(1-2/pi)^n-t c(t,i)=pi$$
where $c(t,i)$ is the (integer) number of ways to have $t$ successes with the last success at index $i$. Multiplying this equation by $pi^n$ gives
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i) 2^t(pi-2)^n-tc(t,i) = pi^n+1$$
Hence the equation
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)2^t(x-2)^n-tc(t,i)=x^n+1$$
is a polynomial equation with rational coefficients for which $pi$ is a root, again contradicting the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
On the other hand I observe:
i) With an infinite number of observations $Z_i_i=1^infty$, the expected number of observations until the first one lands in the square is $1/p = pi/2$.
ii) If we define a larger square $(x,y):-1leq x,yleq 1$ that contains the unit disc, and generate a random vector that is uniformly distributed over that square, then the probability this vector lies in the unit disc is $pi/4$.
I assume $Z_i_i=1^n$ are i.i.d. vectors uniformly distributed over the unit disc in $mathbbR^2$.
If you are seeking something more than my $f(T,I)=pi$ answer, then I think you are on a wild goose chase. That is because you suggest an answer can be given for any positive integer $n$, which would include $n=1$.
In the case $n=1$ we have $T=Isim mboxBernoulli$ with $P[T=1]=p=2/pi$. If you want a function $f(T)$ such that $E[f(T)]=pi$, you must find $f(0)$ and $f(1)$, such that
$$ (1-2/pi)f(0) + (2/pi)f(1) = pi$$
Thus
$$ (pi-2)f(0) + 2f(1)=pi^2 $$
Now if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are rational numbers, it would contradict the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
So we are forced to make irrational choices for $f(0)$ and/or $f(1)$, in which case why not just choose $f(0)=f(1)=pi$?
More generally, for any positive integer $n$ we seek a rational-valued function $f(t,i)$ such that
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)(2/pi)^t(1-2/pi)^n-t c(t,i)=pi$$
where $c(t,i)$ is the (integer) number of ways to have $t$ successes with the last success at index $i$. Multiplying this equation by $pi^n$ gives
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i) 2^t(pi-2)^n-tc(t,i) = pi^n+1$$
Hence the equation
$$ sum_t=0^n sum_i=0^n f(t,i)2^t(x-2)^n-tc(t,i)=x^n+1$$
is a polynomial equation with rational coefficients for which $pi$ is a root, again contradicting the fact that $pi$ is transcendental!
On the other hand I observe:
i) With an infinite number of observations $Z_i_i=1^infty$, the expected number of observations until the first one lands in the square is $1/p = pi/2$.
ii) If we define a larger square $(x,y):-1leq x,yleq 1$ that contains the unit disc, and generate a random vector that is uniformly distributed over that square, then the probability this vector lies in the unit disc is $pi/4$.
edited Sep 2 at 14:07
answered Sep 2 at 13:30
Michael
12.5k11325
12.5k11325
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
Thank you for the answer. I am aware of the last two alternatives you mentioned. This is actually an exam question.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
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1
Define $f(T,I) = pi$ for all $T, I$.
â Michael
Sep 2 at 5:31
1
A natural idea is to consider $hatpi=2n/T$... except that $P(T=0)ne0$. Any idea to adapt this?
â Did
Sep 2 at 5:41
1
You need to define more clearly what we're allowed to use. I take it it's implied that we're not allowed to use $pi$; otherwise @Michael's answer is clearly optimal. Are we allowed to use $n$? If so, you can drop $I$, since $T$ is a sufficient statistic.
â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:16
You can get properly sized parentheses, braces etc. that adjust to their content by preceding them with
leftandright.â joriki
Sep 2 at 6:17
Of course we cannot use $pi$, we are estimating it! We are allowed to use $n$. But I don't see why $T$ is sufficient.
â Landon Carter
Sep 2 at 6:46