What does $p = P(X_1 X_3 < X_4)$ mean?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG #URR8PPP up vote 1 down vote favorite 1 It is a question 59 on page 87 from Ross's book (Introduction to Probability Models) Let $X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4$ are independent continuous random variables with a common distribution function F and let $p = P(X_1 < X_2 > X_3 < X_4)$ Just as the Title, what does it mean? Or similar questions with such an inequity? Thanks Update 1 : The solution says: Use the fact that F(Xi) is a uniform (0,1) random variable to obtain. But where is this fact ? Update: A similar question How can I compute an expression for $P(X_1>X_2>X_3>X_4)$ if $X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4$ are normal and mututally independent? BTW I am not a native-English speaker, and I am learning it by myself. probability share | cite | improve this question edited Aug 24 at 9:01 asked Dec 27 '17 at 13:37 evergreenhomeland 82 8 Usually, a "multiple" inequality is a conjucntion: $X_1 < X...