Number theory/combinatorial proof for cycliclity of $(mathbbZ/pmathbbZ)^times$

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I have tried everything I could and I think I'm conceding. I am trying to find a prove that $(mathbbZ/pmathbbZ)^times$ is cyclic without using FTFAG and theory of finite fields.



Does anyone have a nice combinatorial/number theory proof they know of?



Edit: I would even be satisfied with a linear algebra/analysis proof.







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  • I don't know, but I would bet any number-theortic proof would be equivalent to the one using FTFAG and fields.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 2:53










  • Any possibilities for an analysis proof?
    – Ecotistician
    Aug 24 at 3:03










  • I don't see why there would be an analytic proof.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 3:04










  • Here is one using Möbius function.
    – awllower
    Aug 24 at 4:14










  • Out of curiosity, why are you trying to avoid the FTFAG?
    – Ben Blum-Smith
    Aug 24 at 17:56














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I have tried everything I could and I think I'm conceding. I am trying to find a prove that $(mathbbZ/pmathbbZ)^times$ is cyclic without using FTFAG and theory of finite fields.



Does anyone have a nice combinatorial/number theory proof they know of?



Edit: I would even be satisfied with a linear algebra/analysis proof.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • I don't know, but I would bet any number-theortic proof would be equivalent to the one using FTFAG and fields.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 2:53










  • Any possibilities for an analysis proof?
    – Ecotistician
    Aug 24 at 3:03










  • I don't see why there would be an analytic proof.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 3:04










  • Here is one using Möbius function.
    – awllower
    Aug 24 at 4:14










  • Out of curiosity, why are you trying to avoid the FTFAG?
    – Ben Blum-Smith
    Aug 24 at 17:56












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I have tried everything I could and I think I'm conceding. I am trying to find a prove that $(mathbbZ/pmathbbZ)^times$ is cyclic without using FTFAG and theory of finite fields.



Does anyone have a nice combinatorial/number theory proof they know of?



Edit: I would even be satisfied with a linear algebra/analysis proof.







share|cite|improve this question














I have tried everything I could and I think I'm conceding. I am trying to find a prove that $(mathbbZ/pmathbbZ)^times$ is cyclic without using FTFAG and theory of finite fields.



Does anyone have a nice combinatorial/number theory proof they know of?



Edit: I would even be satisfied with a linear algebra/analysis proof.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 24 at 4:06









Jendrik Stelzner

7,57221037




7,57221037










asked Aug 24 at 2:04









Ecotistician

1818




1818











  • I don't know, but I would bet any number-theortic proof would be equivalent to the one using FTFAG and fields.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 2:53










  • Any possibilities for an analysis proof?
    – Ecotistician
    Aug 24 at 3:03










  • I don't see why there would be an analytic proof.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 3:04










  • Here is one using Möbius function.
    – awllower
    Aug 24 at 4:14










  • Out of curiosity, why are you trying to avoid the FTFAG?
    – Ben Blum-Smith
    Aug 24 at 17:56
















  • I don't know, but I would bet any number-theortic proof would be equivalent to the one using FTFAG and fields.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 2:53










  • Any possibilities for an analysis proof?
    – Ecotistician
    Aug 24 at 3:03










  • I don't see why there would be an analytic proof.
    – Randall
    Aug 24 at 3:04










  • Here is one using Möbius function.
    – awllower
    Aug 24 at 4:14










  • Out of curiosity, why are you trying to avoid the FTFAG?
    – Ben Blum-Smith
    Aug 24 at 17:56















I don't know, but I would bet any number-theortic proof would be equivalent to the one using FTFAG and fields.
– Randall
Aug 24 at 2:53




I don't know, but I would bet any number-theortic proof would be equivalent to the one using FTFAG and fields.
– Randall
Aug 24 at 2:53












Any possibilities for an analysis proof?
– Ecotistician
Aug 24 at 3:03




Any possibilities for an analysis proof?
– Ecotistician
Aug 24 at 3:03












I don't see why there would be an analytic proof.
– Randall
Aug 24 at 3:04




I don't see why there would be an analytic proof.
– Randall
Aug 24 at 3:04












Here is one using Möbius function.
– awllower
Aug 24 at 4:14




Here is one using Möbius function.
– awllower
Aug 24 at 4:14












Out of curiosity, why are you trying to avoid the FTFAG?
– Ben Blum-Smith
Aug 24 at 17:56




Out of curiosity, why are you trying to avoid the FTFAG?
– Ben Blum-Smith
Aug 24 at 17:56










1 Answer
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Of course, the group has order $varphi (p)=p-1$. I would suggest consulting Gauß's Disquisitiones Arithmeticae (1801), where he is supposed to have given two proofs of the existence of primitive elements (one constructive). I believe this would do it, as you would then have an element of order $p-1$.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Of course, the group has order $varphi (p)=p-1$. I would suggest consulting Gauß's Disquisitiones Arithmeticae (1801), where he is supposed to have given two proofs of the existence of primitive elements (one constructive). I believe this would do it, as you would then have an element of order $p-1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Of course, the group has order $varphi (p)=p-1$. I would suggest consulting Gauß's Disquisitiones Arithmeticae (1801), where he is supposed to have given two proofs of the existence of primitive elements (one constructive). I believe this would do it, as you would then have an element of order $p-1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        Of course, the group has order $varphi (p)=p-1$. I would suggest consulting Gauß's Disquisitiones Arithmeticae (1801), where he is supposed to have given two proofs of the existence of primitive elements (one constructive). I believe this would do it, as you would then have an element of order $p-1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Of course, the group has order $varphi (p)=p-1$. I would suggest consulting Gauß's Disquisitiones Arithmeticae (1801), where he is supposed to have given two proofs of the existence of primitive elements (one constructive). I believe this would do it, as you would then have an element of order $p-1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Aug 24 at 2:45

























        answered Aug 24 at 2:34









        Chris Custer

        6,1872622




        6,1872622



























             

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