Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) mid N(alpha)$
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Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.
So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?
abstract-algebra prime-numbers divisibility norm gaussian-integers
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.
So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?
abstract-algebra prime-numbers divisibility norm gaussian-integers
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.
So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?
abstract-algebra prime-numbers divisibility norm gaussian-integers
Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.
So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?
abstract-algebra prime-numbers divisibility norm gaussian-integers
edited Aug 24 at 11:45
Bernard
111k635103
111k635103
asked Aug 24 at 10:23
mandella
713420
713420
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add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint:
$$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$
If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?
1
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.
Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.
Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.
Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.
So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$
Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
$$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint:
$$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$
If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?
1
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint:
$$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$
If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?
1
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint:
$$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$
If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?
Hint:
$$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$
If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?
edited Aug 24 at 10:39
answered Aug 24 at 10:34
cansomeonehelpmeout
5,2083830
5,2083830
1
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
add a comment |Â
1
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
1
1
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
$N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:42
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
@mandella Yes, quick & easy!
â cansomeonehelpmeout
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
Thank you for the hint!
â mandella
Aug 24 at 10:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.
Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.
Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.
Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.
So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$
Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.
Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.
Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.
Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.
So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$
Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.
Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.
Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.
Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.
So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$
Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.
Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.
Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.
Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.
Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.
So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$
Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.
answered Aug 25 at 5:45
Robert Soupe
10.2k21947
10.2k21947
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
$$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
$$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
$$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$
It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
$$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$
answered Aug 24 at 10:41
Servaes
1
1
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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