Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) mid N(alpha)$

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Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.



So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?







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    up vote
    2
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    favorite












    Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.



    So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.



      So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?







      share|cite|improve this question














      Show that if $beta mid alpha$ in $mathbb Z[i]$ then $N(beta) hspace1mm| hspace1mm N(alpha)$ where $alpha$ is a prime in $mathbb Z[i]$ and $N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2$.



      So we are working with Gaussian integers and primes there. How can this be true? Why is it related to the divisibility of the norm?









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 24 at 11:45









      Bernard

      111k635103




      111k635103










      asked Aug 24 at 10:23









      mandella

      713420




      713420




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Hint:



          $$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$



          If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 1




            $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
            – mandella
            Aug 24 at 10:42










          • @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
            – cansomeonehelpmeout
            Aug 24 at 10:43










          • Thank you for the hint!
            – mandella
            Aug 24 at 10:43

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.



          Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.



          Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.



          Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.



          So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$




          Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
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            It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
            $$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Hint:



              $$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$



              If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?






              share|cite|improve this answer


















              • 1




                $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:42










              • @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
                – cansomeonehelpmeout
                Aug 24 at 10:43










              • Thank you for the hint!
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:43














              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Hint:



              $$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$



              If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?






              share|cite|improve this answer


















              • 1




                $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:42










              • @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
                – cansomeonehelpmeout
                Aug 24 at 10:43










              • Thank you for the hint!
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:43












              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted






              Hint:



              $$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$



              If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?






              share|cite|improve this answer














              Hint:



              $$N(alphabeta)=N(alpha)N(beta)$$



              If $betamidalpha$, you can write $alpha=betagamma$. Now, what does $N(alpha)$ look like?







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Aug 24 at 10:39

























              answered Aug 24 at 10:34









              cansomeonehelpmeout

              5,2083830




              5,2083830







              • 1




                $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:42










              • @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
                – cansomeonehelpmeout
                Aug 24 at 10:43










              • Thank you for the hint!
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:43












              • 1




                $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:42










              • @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
                – cansomeonehelpmeout
                Aug 24 at 10:43










              • Thank you for the hint!
                – mandella
                Aug 24 at 10:43







              1




              1




              $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
              – mandella
              Aug 24 at 10:42




              $N(alpha) = N(betagamma) = N(beta)N(gamma)$ so this completes the proof?
              – mandella
              Aug 24 at 10:42












              @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
              – cansomeonehelpmeout
              Aug 24 at 10:43




              @mandella Yes, quick & easy!
              – cansomeonehelpmeout
              Aug 24 at 10:43












              Thank you for the hint!
              – mandella
              Aug 24 at 10:43




              Thank you for the hint!
              – mandella
              Aug 24 at 10:43










              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.



              Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.



              Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.



              Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.



              So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$




              Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.



                Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.



                Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.



                Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.



                So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$




                Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.



                  Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.



                  Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.



                  Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.



                  So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$




                  Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Because the norm function is chosen for the express purpose of enabling comparison of numbers, especially if one number is a divisor of another.



                  Algebraically, $N(alpha beta)$ should be such that $|N(alpha)| < |N(alpha beta)|$ and $|N(beta)| < |N(alpha beta)|$, and also $N(alpha) mid N(alpha beta)$ and $N(beta) mid N(alpha beta)$.



                  Consider for example $gcd(3, -21)$ in $mathbb Z$. Define $N(n) = n^2$. Then, although $-21 < 3$, $9 < 441$, which tells us that 3 is closer to 0 than $-21$. So next we see if 3 is a divisor of $-21$. Indeed $-21 = -3 times -7 + 0$.



                  Of course you can also use the absolute value function, but I chose to use squaring instead to hopefully make the similarity to the Gaussian integers clearer. Norms of Gaussian integers are never negative, so we don't need to worry about taking the absolute value of a norm.



                  So if $alpha = a + bi$, then $N(alpha) = a^2 + b^2$. For example, $N(-2 + i) = 4 + 1 = 5$. And $N(5 + 0i) = 25 + 0 = 25$. Since 5 is a divisor of 25, this suggests that $-2 + i$ is a divisor of 5. We see that $$(-2 - i)(-2 + i) = 4 - 2i + 2i - (-1) = 4 + 1 = 5.$$




                  Norms are also useful when Gaussian integers are coprime. For example, $gcd(-2 + i, 6) = 1$ and we readily see that $6 = (-2 - i)(-2 + i) + 1$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 25 at 5:45









                  Robert Soupe

                  10.2k21947




                  10.2k21947




















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
                      $$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
                        $$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer






















                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
                          $$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          It suffices to prove that if $betamidalpha$ then $overlinebetamidoverlinealpha$, because
                          $$N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=(a+bi)(a-bi)=(a+bi)(overlinea+bi).$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Aug 24 at 10:41









                          Servaes

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