If a compact set's boundary is the finite union of smooth Jordan curves, is it a domain?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $V subset mathbbR^2$ be a compact set such that it's boundary is a finite union of piecewise smooth Jordan curves.



For example:



taken from wikipedia



Does this imply that $V setminus partial V$ is a domain?



(If yes, does this also apply to higher finite dimensions, namely $mathbbR^n$?)




EDIT: Thanks to @UmbertoP it is clear that the answer is no, and a simple counter-example is the union of two disjoint closed disks.



Now, if I add the following conditions:



  • The jordan curves mentioned are pairwise disjoint (Thanks @LeeMosher)

  • One of the jordan curves is the boundary of a set that contains all other jordan curves

Do I have a domain now?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    Do you intend, as your picture suggests, that the Jordan curves forming this union are pairwise disjoint?
    – Lee Mosher
    May 31 '16 at 14:03







  • 2




    What happens if $V$ is a union of two disjoint closed disks?
    – Umberto P.
    May 31 '16 at 14:13










  • @LeeMosher thanks for pointing that out, yes I want that. I was indeed feeling that some more conditions would be necessary.
    – Pedro A
    May 31 '16 at 23:59










  • @UmbertoP. Thank you!! I don't know how I missed that. If I add the condition that one of the jordan curves fully encloses all the others, is it sufficient now, or still lacking other conditions?
    – Pedro A
    Jun 1 '16 at 0:00














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $V subset mathbbR^2$ be a compact set such that it's boundary is a finite union of piecewise smooth Jordan curves.



For example:



taken from wikipedia



Does this imply that $V setminus partial V$ is a domain?



(If yes, does this also apply to higher finite dimensions, namely $mathbbR^n$?)




EDIT: Thanks to @UmbertoP it is clear that the answer is no, and a simple counter-example is the union of two disjoint closed disks.



Now, if I add the following conditions:



  • The jordan curves mentioned are pairwise disjoint (Thanks @LeeMosher)

  • One of the jordan curves is the boundary of a set that contains all other jordan curves

Do I have a domain now?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    Do you intend, as your picture suggests, that the Jordan curves forming this union are pairwise disjoint?
    – Lee Mosher
    May 31 '16 at 14:03







  • 2




    What happens if $V$ is a union of two disjoint closed disks?
    – Umberto P.
    May 31 '16 at 14:13










  • @LeeMosher thanks for pointing that out, yes I want that. I was indeed feeling that some more conditions would be necessary.
    – Pedro A
    May 31 '16 at 23:59










  • @UmbertoP. Thank you!! I don't know how I missed that. If I add the condition that one of the jordan curves fully encloses all the others, is it sufficient now, or still lacking other conditions?
    – Pedro A
    Jun 1 '16 at 0:00












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $V subset mathbbR^2$ be a compact set such that it's boundary is a finite union of piecewise smooth Jordan curves.



For example:



taken from wikipedia



Does this imply that $V setminus partial V$ is a domain?



(If yes, does this also apply to higher finite dimensions, namely $mathbbR^n$?)




EDIT: Thanks to @UmbertoP it is clear that the answer is no, and a simple counter-example is the union of two disjoint closed disks.



Now, if I add the following conditions:



  • The jordan curves mentioned are pairwise disjoint (Thanks @LeeMosher)

  • One of the jordan curves is the boundary of a set that contains all other jordan curves

Do I have a domain now?







share|cite|improve this question














Let $V subset mathbbR^2$ be a compact set such that it's boundary is a finite union of piecewise smooth Jordan curves.



For example:



taken from wikipedia



Does this imply that $V setminus partial V$ is a domain?



(If yes, does this also apply to higher finite dimensions, namely $mathbbR^n$?)




EDIT: Thanks to @UmbertoP it is clear that the answer is no, and a simple counter-example is the union of two disjoint closed disks.



Now, if I add the following conditions:



  • The jordan curves mentioned are pairwise disjoint (Thanks @LeeMosher)

  • One of the jordan curves is the boundary of a set that contains all other jordan curves

Do I have a domain now?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jun 1 '16 at 0:07

























asked May 31 '16 at 13:37









Pedro A

1,6811723




1,6811723







  • 2




    Do you intend, as your picture suggests, that the Jordan curves forming this union are pairwise disjoint?
    – Lee Mosher
    May 31 '16 at 14:03







  • 2




    What happens if $V$ is a union of two disjoint closed disks?
    – Umberto P.
    May 31 '16 at 14:13










  • @LeeMosher thanks for pointing that out, yes I want that. I was indeed feeling that some more conditions would be necessary.
    – Pedro A
    May 31 '16 at 23:59










  • @UmbertoP. Thank you!! I don't know how I missed that. If I add the condition that one of the jordan curves fully encloses all the others, is it sufficient now, or still lacking other conditions?
    – Pedro A
    Jun 1 '16 at 0:00












  • 2




    Do you intend, as your picture suggests, that the Jordan curves forming this union are pairwise disjoint?
    – Lee Mosher
    May 31 '16 at 14:03







  • 2




    What happens if $V$ is a union of two disjoint closed disks?
    – Umberto P.
    May 31 '16 at 14:13










  • @LeeMosher thanks for pointing that out, yes I want that. I was indeed feeling that some more conditions would be necessary.
    – Pedro A
    May 31 '16 at 23:59










  • @UmbertoP. Thank you!! I don't know how I missed that. If I add the condition that one of the jordan curves fully encloses all the others, is it sufficient now, or still lacking other conditions?
    – Pedro A
    Jun 1 '16 at 0:00







2




2




Do you intend, as your picture suggests, that the Jordan curves forming this union are pairwise disjoint?
– Lee Mosher
May 31 '16 at 14:03





Do you intend, as your picture suggests, that the Jordan curves forming this union are pairwise disjoint?
– Lee Mosher
May 31 '16 at 14:03





2




2




What happens if $V$ is a union of two disjoint closed disks?
– Umberto P.
May 31 '16 at 14:13




What happens if $V$ is a union of two disjoint closed disks?
– Umberto P.
May 31 '16 at 14:13












@LeeMosher thanks for pointing that out, yes I want that. I was indeed feeling that some more conditions would be necessary.
– Pedro A
May 31 '16 at 23:59




@LeeMosher thanks for pointing that out, yes I want that. I was indeed feeling that some more conditions would be necessary.
– Pedro A
May 31 '16 at 23:59












@UmbertoP. Thank you!! I don't know how I missed that. If I add the condition that one of the jordan curves fully encloses all the others, is it sufficient now, or still lacking other conditions?
– Pedro A
Jun 1 '16 at 0:00




@UmbertoP. Thank you!! I don't know how I missed that. If I add the condition that one of the jordan curves fully encloses all the others, is it sufficient now, or still lacking other conditions?
– Pedro A
Jun 1 '16 at 0:00










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Even if one of the Jordan curves fully encloses all the others, you get counterexamples: Insert a closed disk in one the holes.



Let us first consider a non-connected $V$. If it has two or more components having an interior point, then $V backslash partial V$ cannot be connected. Hence $V$ must be required to have at most one component with an interior point. In this case all other components must be Jordan curves.



This shows that we may focus to connected $V$ having an interior point. In this case $V backslash partial V$ is clearly connected because $V$ is a $2$-manifold with boundary (in general not a smooth manifold since the Jordan curves are only piecewise smooth). Its interior is connected. See Is the interior of a smooth manifold with boundary connected? (the proof given in the first answer is valid also for topological manifolds).






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
    – Pedro A
    Aug 24 at 0:36










Your Answer




StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
);
);
, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: false,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);













 

draft saved


draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1806968%2fif-a-compact-sets-boundary-is-the-finite-union-of-smooth-jordan-curves-is-it-a%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest






























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Even if one of the Jordan curves fully encloses all the others, you get counterexamples: Insert a closed disk in one the holes.



Let us first consider a non-connected $V$. If it has two or more components having an interior point, then $V backslash partial V$ cannot be connected. Hence $V$ must be required to have at most one component with an interior point. In this case all other components must be Jordan curves.



This shows that we may focus to connected $V$ having an interior point. In this case $V backslash partial V$ is clearly connected because $V$ is a $2$-manifold with boundary (in general not a smooth manifold since the Jordan curves are only piecewise smooth). Its interior is connected. See Is the interior of a smooth manifold with boundary connected? (the proof given in the first answer is valid also for topological manifolds).






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
    – Pedro A
    Aug 24 at 0:36














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Even if one of the Jordan curves fully encloses all the others, you get counterexamples: Insert a closed disk in one the holes.



Let us first consider a non-connected $V$. If it has two or more components having an interior point, then $V backslash partial V$ cannot be connected. Hence $V$ must be required to have at most one component with an interior point. In this case all other components must be Jordan curves.



This shows that we may focus to connected $V$ having an interior point. In this case $V backslash partial V$ is clearly connected because $V$ is a $2$-manifold with boundary (in general not a smooth manifold since the Jordan curves are only piecewise smooth). Its interior is connected. See Is the interior of a smooth manifold with boundary connected? (the proof given in the first answer is valid also for topological manifolds).






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
    – Pedro A
    Aug 24 at 0:36












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Even if one of the Jordan curves fully encloses all the others, you get counterexamples: Insert a closed disk in one the holes.



Let us first consider a non-connected $V$. If it has two or more components having an interior point, then $V backslash partial V$ cannot be connected. Hence $V$ must be required to have at most one component with an interior point. In this case all other components must be Jordan curves.



This shows that we may focus to connected $V$ having an interior point. In this case $V backslash partial V$ is clearly connected because $V$ is a $2$-manifold with boundary (in general not a smooth manifold since the Jordan curves are only piecewise smooth). Its interior is connected. See Is the interior of a smooth manifold with boundary connected? (the proof given in the first answer is valid also for topological manifolds).






share|cite|improve this answer












Even if one of the Jordan curves fully encloses all the others, you get counterexamples: Insert a closed disk in one the holes.



Let us first consider a non-connected $V$. If it has two or more components having an interior point, then $V backslash partial V$ cannot be connected. Hence $V$ must be required to have at most one component with an interior point. In this case all other components must be Jordan curves.



This shows that we may focus to connected $V$ having an interior point. In this case $V backslash partial V$ is clearly connected because $V$ is a $2$-manifold with boundary (in general not a smooth manifold since the Jordan curves are only piecewise smooth). Its interior is connected. See Is the interior of a smooth manifold with boundary connected? (the proof given in the first answer is valid also for topological manifolds).







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 23 at 23:01









Paul Frost

4,693424




4,693424











  • Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
    – Pedro A
    Aug 24 at 0:36
















  • Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
    – Pedro A
    Aug 24 at 0:36















Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
– Pedro A
Aug 24 at 0:36




Thank you very much, especially for taking the time to answer a question that is over two years old! :)
– Pedro A
Aug 24 at 0:36

















 

draft saved


draft discarded















































 


draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1806968%2fif-a-compact-sets-boundary-is-the-finite-union-of-smooth-jordan-curves-is-it-a%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest













































































這個網誌中的熱門文章

How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

Mutual Information Always Non-negative

Why am i infinitely getting the same tweet with the Twitter Search API?