Is there a geometrical method to prove $x<fracsin x +tan x2$?
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Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$
and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)
Thanks in advance.
$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu
calculus geometry trigonometry proof-writing alternative-proof
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up vote
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Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$
and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)
Thanks in advance.
$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu
calculus geometry trigonometry proof-writing alternative-proof
I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
â Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30
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up vote
2
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favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$
and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)
Thanks in advance.
$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu
calculus geometry trigonometry proof-writing alternative-proof
Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$
and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)
Thanks in advance.
$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu
calculus geometry trigonometry proof-writing alternative-proof
asked Aug 13 '17 at 6:28
Khosrotash
16.7k12159
16.7k12159
I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
â Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30
add a comment |Â
I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
â Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30
I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
â Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30
I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
â Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30
add a comment |Â
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let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
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5
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Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.
Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.
Then
$$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$
"All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.
There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
$$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
$$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
$$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$
for $0 < theta < pi/2$.
This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).
Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
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For any $x$ in the given interval
$$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.
The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality
$$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$
Here it is a properly geometric proof.
Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:
$$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
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We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
$$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$
Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$
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$$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.
Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.
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From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.
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We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
(AM GM Inequality)
Equality holds when $x=0$
Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$
Hence the result
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
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Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.
Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...
In the figure,
$overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
$$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
(FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...
$$beginalign
|textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
endalign$$
and the result follows. $square$
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In fact one can prove a better inequality
$$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.
Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
$$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.
Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.
$bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
1
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
1
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
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Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.
Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
$$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
beginalign*
fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
> CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
&= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*
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10 Answers
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10 Answers
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active
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let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
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let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
up vote
7
down vote
let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$
let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$
edited Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
answered Aug 13 '17 at 6:51
Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
67.7k32660
67.7k32660
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
add a comment |Â
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:26
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:36
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
â Professor Vector
Aug 13 '17 at 9:41
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
ok thanks again
â Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.
Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.
Then
$$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$
"All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.
There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
$$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
$$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
$$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$
for $0 < theta < pi/2$.
This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).
Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.
Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.
Then
$$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$
"All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.
There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
$$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
$$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
$$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$
for $0 < theta < pi/2$.
This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).
Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.
Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.
Then
$$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$
"All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.
There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
$$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
$$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
$$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$
for $0 < theta < pi/2$.
This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).
Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$
Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.
Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.
Then
$$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$
"All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.
There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
$$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
$$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
$$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$
for $0 < theta < pi/2$.
This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).
Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$
edited Aug 14 '17 at 6:51
answered Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
Blue
43.9k868141
43.9k868141
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
add a comment |Â
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
â orangeskid
Aug 15 '17 at 4:30
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
@orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
â Blue
Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
For any $x$ in the given interval
$$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.
The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality
$$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$
Here it is a properly geometric proof.
Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:
$$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
For any $x$ in the given interval
$$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.
The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality
$$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$
Here it is a properly geometric proof.
Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:
$$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
For any $x$ in the given interval
$$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.
The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality
$$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$
Here it is a properly geometric proof.
Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:
$$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$
For any $x$ in the given interval
$$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.
The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality
$$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$
Here it is a properly geometric proof.
Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:
$$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$
edited Aug 23 at 19:31
answered Aug 13 '17 at 13:47
Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
273k32268636
273k32268636
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
add a comment |Â
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
And the downvote is for... what?
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Sep 25 '17 at 21:56
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
â Paramanand Singh
Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
$$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$
Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
$$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$
Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
$$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$
Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$
We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
$$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$
Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$
edited Dec 1 '17 at 16:11
answered Nov 4 '17 at 13:28
Guy Fsone
16.8k42671
16.8k42671
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
$$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.
Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
$$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.
Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
$$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.
Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.
$$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.
Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.
edited Aug 13 '17 at 6:56
answered Aug 13 '17 at 6:47
Claude Leibovici
113k1155127
113k1155127
add a comment |Â
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up vote
1
down vote
From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.
From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.
answered Aug 13 '17 at 9:05
user348749
add a comment |Â
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up vote
1
down vote
We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
(AM GM Inequality)
Equality holds when $x=0$
Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$
Hence the result
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
(AM GM Inequality)
Equality holds when $x=0$
Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$
Hence the result
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
(AM GM Inequality)
Equality holds when $x=0$
Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$
Hence the result
We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
(AM GM Inequality)
Equality holds when $x=0$
Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$
Hence the result
edited Nov 3 '17 at 18:31
A---B
2,25511135
2,25511135
answered Sep 25 '17 at 17:58
user481779
338116
338116
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
add a comment |Â
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
â Jean Marie
Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.
Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...
In the figure,
$overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
$$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
(FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...
$$beginalign
|textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
endalign$$
and the result follows. $square$
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.
Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...
In the figure,
$overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
$$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
(FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...
$$beginalign
|textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
endalign$$
and the result follows. $square$
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.
Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...
In the figure,
$overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
$$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
(FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...
$$beginalign
|textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
endalign$$
and the result follows. $square$
Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.
Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...
In the figure,
$overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
$$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
(FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...
$$beginalign
|textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
endalign$$
and the result follows. $square$
answered Aug 23 at 17:08
Blue
43.9k868141
43.9k868141
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up vote
0
down vote
In fact one can prove a better inequality
$$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.
Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
$$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.
Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.
$bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
1
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
1
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
In fact one can prove a better inequality
$$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.
Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
$$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.
Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.
$bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
1
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
1
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
In fact one can prove a better inequality
$$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.
Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
$$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.
Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.
$bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.
In fact one can prove a better inequality
$$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.
Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
$$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.
Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.
$bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.
edited Aug 15 '17 at 4:48
answered Aug 14 '17 at 4:39
orangeskid
28.1k31746
28.1k31746
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
1
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
1
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
1
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
1
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:23
1
1
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
@Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 5:39
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
â Claude Leibovici
Aug 14 '17 at 5:47
1
1
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:05
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
@Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
â orangeskid
Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.
Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
$$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
beginalign*
fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
> CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
&= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.
Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
$$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
beginalign*
fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
> CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
&= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.
Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
$$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
beginalign*
fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
> CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
&= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*
Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.
Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
$$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
beginalign*
fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
> CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
&= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*
answered Aug 23 at 16:47
timon92
3,7441724
3,7441724
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I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
â Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30