Is there a geometrical method to prove $x<fracsin x +tan x2$?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











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Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$

and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)



Thanks in advance.



$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu







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  • I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
    – Guy Fsone
    Nov 4 '17 at 13:30














up vote
2
down vote

favorite
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Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$

and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)



Thanks in advance.



$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu







share|cite|improve this question




















  • I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
    – Guy Fsone
    Nov 4 '17 at 13:30












up vote
2
down vote

favorite
5









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
5






5





Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$

and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)



Thanks in advance.



$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu







share|cite|improve this question












Suppose $x in (0,fracpi2)$

and we want to prove $$x<fracsin x +tan x2$$I tried to prove it by taking $f(x)=sin x+ tan x -2x$ and show $f(x) >0 ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ take f'$$f'=cos x +1+tan ^2 x-2\=tan^2 x-(1-cos x)\=tan ^2 x-2sin^2(frac x2)$$ I get stuck here ,because the last line need to be proved $tan ^2 x>2sin^2(frac x2) ,whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$
$bfQuestion:$ Is there a geometrical method to prove the first inequality ? (or other idea)



Thanks in advance.



$bfRemark: $I can see the function is increasing $whenspace x in (0,fracpi2)$ like below :https://www.desmos.com/calculator/www2psnhmu









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asked Aug 13 '17 at 6:28









Khosrotash

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  • I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
    – Guy Fsone
    Nov 4 '17 at 13:30
















  • I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
    – Guy Fsone
    Nov 4 '17 at 13:30















I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
– Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30




I have prove this inequality only using the fact that: $tan xge x$ check my answer below
– Guy Fsone
Nov 4 '17 at 13:30










10 Answers
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let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$






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  • In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
    – Professor Vector
    Aug 13 '17 at 9:26











  • thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    Aug 13 '17 at 9:36










  • No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
    – Professor Vector
    Aug 13 '17 at 9:41










  • ok thanks again
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    Aug 13 '17 at 9:46

















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5
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Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.



enter image description here



Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.



Then
$$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$



"All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.



There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
$$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
$$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
$$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$



for $0 < theta < pi/2$.



This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).



enter image description here



Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$






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  • Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
    – orangeskid
    Aug 15 '17 at 4:30










  • @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
    – Blue
    Aug 15 '17 at 5:28


















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For any $x$ in the given interval



$$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.

The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality




$$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$





Here it is a properly geometric proof.
enter image description here



Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:



$$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$






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  • And the downvote is for... what?
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Sep 25 '17 at 21:56










  • Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
    – Paramanand Singh
    Nov 4 '17 at 5:02

















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We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
$$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$




Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$






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    $$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.



    Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.






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      From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.






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        We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
        (AM GM Inequality)



        Equality holds when $x=0$



        Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$



        Hence the result






        share|cite|improve this answer






















        • I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
          – Jean Marie
          Sep 27 '17 at 20:00


















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        Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.




        Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...



        enter image description here



        In the figure,
        $overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
        $$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
        (FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...



        $$beginalign
        |textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
        impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
        impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
        endalign$$



        and the result follows. $square$






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          In fact one can prove a better inequality



          $$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.



          Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
          $$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.



          Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.



          $bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.






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          • In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 14 '17 at 5:23






          • 1




            @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
            – orangeskid
            Aug 14 '17 at 5:39










          • I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 14 '17 at 5:47






          • 1




            @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
            – orangeskid
            Aug 14 '17 at 6:05











          • @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
            – orangeskid
            Aug 14 '17 at 6:46

















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          Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.





          Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
          $$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
          Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
          beginalign*
          fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
          > CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
          &= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*






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            10 Answers
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            up vote
            7
            down vote













            let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:26











            • thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:36










            • No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:41










            • ok thanks again
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:46














            up vote
            7
            down vote













            let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:26











            • thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:36










            • No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:41










            • ok thanks again
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:46












            up vote
            7
            down vote










            up vote
            7
            down vote









            let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            let $$f(x)=sin(x)+tan(x)-2x$$ then $$f(0)=0$$ and $$f'(x)=cos(x)+frac1cos(x)^2-2$$ and this can be written as $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos(x))(1-cos(x)^2)+cos(x)(1-cos(x))cos(x)^2>0$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 13 '17 at 9:36

























            answered Aug 13 '17 at 6:51









            Dr. Sonnhard Graubner

            67.7k32660




            67.7k32660











            • In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:26











            • thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:36










            • No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:41










            • ok thanks again
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:46
















            • In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:26











            • thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:36










            • No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
              – Professor Vector
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:41










            • ok thanks again
              – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
              Aug 13 '17 at 9:46















            In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
            – Professor Vector
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:26





            In reality, $$f'(x)=frac(1-cos x)(1+cos x-cos^2x)cos^2x.$$
            – Professor Vector
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:26













            thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
            – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:36




            thank you for your hint, but this don't destroy my proof
            – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:36












            No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
            – Professor Vector
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:41




            No, it doesn't, but correcting the mistake is a definite improvement. :)
            – Professor Vector
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:41












            ok thanks again
            – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:46




            ok thanks again
            – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
            Aug 13 '17 at 9:46










            up vote
            5
            down vote













            Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.



            enter image description here



            Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.



            Then
            $$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$



            "All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.



            There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
            $$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
            $$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
            so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
            $$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$



            for $0 < theta < pi/2$.



            This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).



            enter image description here



            Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
              – orangeskid
              Aug 15 '17 at 4:30










            • @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
              – Blue
              Aug 15 '17 at 5:28















            up vote
            5
            down vote













            Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.



            enter image description here



            Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.



            Then
            $$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$



            "All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.



            There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
            $$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
            $$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
            so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
            $$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$



            for $0 < theta < pi/2$.



            This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).



            enter image description here



            Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
              – orangeskid
              Aug 15 '17 at 4:30










            • @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
              – Blue
              Aug 15 '17 at 5:28













            up vote
            5
            down vote










            up vote
            5
            down vote









            Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.



            enter image description here



            Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.



            Then
            $$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$



            "All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.



            There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
            $$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
            $$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
            so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
            $$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$



            for $0 < theta < pi/2$.



            This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).



            enter image description here



            Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Here's a geometric argument, but it isn't as slick as some of the Calculus-based ones.



            enter image description here



            Consider the unit circle about $O$, through $R$ and $S$, with $theta = angle ROS$. The perpendicular from $S$ to $overlineOR$ has length $sintheta$, while the perpendicular from $R$ up to $T$ on the extension of $overlineOS$ has length $tantheta$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $overlineST$.



            Then
            $$2;|textarea of sector;ROS| = theta qquadtextandqquad 2;|triangle ORM| = frac12left(sintheta + tanthetaright)$$



            "All we need to do" is show that the triangle has more area than the sector. This seems pretty clear; after all, the triangle contains almost-all of the sector, except for the circular segment defined by $overlineKR$, where $K$ is the intersection of $overlineRM$ and the circle. There is a concern, though, that the excess area in the triangular region $KSM$ could be less than that of the tiny sliver of a circular segment for small $theta$; we need to dispel that concern.



            There's probably a simpler route to this, but I coordinatized and, with the help of Mathematica, found
            $$M = left(frac1 + costheta2, fracsintheta (1 + costheta)2 costhetaright)$$
            $$K = left(frac1 + 3 costheta + 2 cos^2theta + 2 cos^3theta1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2theta, frac2 sintheta costheta ( 1 + costheta)1 + 3 costheta + 4 cos^2thetaright)$$
            so that (after a bit more symbol-crunching)
            $$frac = frac1 + 3 costheta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac1 + 3 costheta - 4 cos^2theta4 cos^2theta = 1 + frac(1-costheta)(1 + 4 costheta)4 cos^2theta > 1$$



            for $0 < theta < pi/2$.



            This says that $overlineMK$ is longer than $overlineKR$, so that we could reflect $R$ in $K$ to get $R^prime$, and copy circular segment $KR$ as circular segment $KR^prime$ inside $triangle ORM$ yet tangent to the unit circle (and therefore outside of sector $ORS$).



            enter image description here



            Consequently, the triangle definitely has more area than the sector, so we're done. $square$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 14 '17 at 6:51

























            answered Aug 14 '17 at 5:39









            Blue

            43.9k868141




            43.9k868141











            • Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
              – orangeskid
              Aug 15 '17 at 4:30










            • @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
              – Blue
              Aug 15 '17 at 5:28

















            • Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
              – orangeskid
              Aug 15 '17 at 4:30










            • @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
              – Blue
              Aug 15 '17 at 5:28
















            Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
            – orangeskid
            Aug 15 '17 at 4:30




            Thek reflection argument is lovely, great answer! Can you show in a similar way the stonger inequality ?
            – orangeskid
            Aug 15 '17 at 4:30












            @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
            – Blue
            Aug 15 '17 at 5:28





            @orangeskid: Thanks! Of course, it's certainly possible to tweak the construction so that $M := frac23S + frac13T$ to illustrate the stronger inequality. However, for angles less than about $55.64...^circ$, the corresponding ratio $|overlineMK|/|overlineKR|$ falls below $1$, so my reflection argument fails. (Generally, if $M := s S + t T$ for positive $s$ and $t$ with $s+t=1$, there'll always be a failure threshold, unless $s = t = 1/2$.) Another approach is needed to prove that the area of region KSM is greater than the area of circular segment $KR$.
            – Blue
            Aug 15 '17 at 5:28











            up vote
            4
            down vote













            For any $x$ in the given interval



            $$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
            and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.

            The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality




            $$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$





            Here it is a properly geometric proof.
            enter image description here



            Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:



            $$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • And the downvote is for... what?
              – Jack D'Aurizio♦
              Sep 25 '17 at 21:56










            • Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 4 '17 at 5:02














            up vote
            4
            down vote













            For any $x$ in the given interval



            $$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
            and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.

            The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality




            $$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$





            Here it is a properly geometric proof.
            enter image description here



            Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:



            $$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • And the downvote is for... what?
              – Jack D'Aurizio♦
              Sep 25 '17 at 21:56










            • Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 4 '17 at 5:02












            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            For any $x$ in the given interval



            $$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
            and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.

            The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality




            $$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$





            Here it is a properly geometric proof.
            enter image description here



            Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:



            $$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            For any $x$ in the given interval



            $$sin(x)+tan(x)=int_0^xleft(cos(u)+frac1cos^2(u)right),dustackrelAM-GMgeq2int_0^xfracdusqrtcos(u) $$
            and the last integral is clearly $>2int_0^x1,dx = 2x$.

            The same approach proves the stronger, non-trivial inequality




            $$ forall xinleft(0,tfracpi2right),qquad colorred2sin(x)+tan(x)>colorred3x.$$





            Here it is a properly geometric proof.
            enter image description here



            Given a circle sector with amplitude $2theta$, we may consider the associated arc and the parabola through the midpoint and the endpoints of such arc. The union of the parabolic segment and the triangle with side lengths $1,1,2sintheta$ is a region strictly contained in the circle sector. The area of the parabolic segment is $frac43$ of the area of the shaded triangle, hence we have:



            $$costhetasintheta+frac43sintheta(1-costheta)< theta.$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 23 at 19:31

























            answered Aug 13 '17 at 13:47









            Jack D'Aurizio♦

            273k32268636




            273k32268636











            • And the downvote is for... what?
              – Jack D'Aurizio♦
              Sep 25 '17 at 21:56










            • Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 4 '17 at 5:02
















            • And the downvote is for... what?
              – Jack D'Aurizio♦
              Sep 25 '17 at 21:56










            • Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 4 '17 at 5:02















            And the downvote is for... what?
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Sep 25 '17 at 21:56




            And the downvote is for... what?
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Sep 25 '17 at 21:56












            Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
            – Paramanand Singh
            Nov 4 '17 at 5:02




            Wonderful answer. Especially the use of parabola and its area. +1
            – Paramanand Singh
            Nov 4 '17 at 5:02










            up vote
            3
            down vote














            We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
            $$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$




            Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              up vote
              3
              down vote














              We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
              $$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$




              Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote










                We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
                $$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$




                Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$






                share|cite|improve this answer















                We have $tan xgt x$ for $xin(0,fracpi2)$ the result follows, Using AM-GM-HM inequalites we have ,
                $$colorbluefracsin x+ tan x2 ge sqrtsin xtan x ge frac2frac1sin x +frac1tan x = 2tan frac x2 gt x$$




                Indeed, $$ frac1sin 2u +frac1tan 2u= frac1sin 2u + fraccos 2u sin 2u =frac2cos^2 u2cossin u = frac1tan u$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Dec 1 '17 at 16:11

























                answered Nov 4 '17 at 13:28









                Guy Fsone

                16.8k42671




                16.8k42671




















                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote













                    $$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.



                    Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.






                    share|cite|improve this answer


























                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      $$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.



                      Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote









                        $$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.



                        Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.






                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        $$f=sin (x)+tan (x)-2 ximplies f'=cos (x)+sec ^2(x)-2$$ Now, using the tangent half-angle substitution, we have $$f'=fract^24+frac2sqrtt^2+4-1$$ Squaring leads to $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad -fract^616+fract^44+t^2=0$$ the real roots are $$t=pmsqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)$$ Considering the positive root then $$f'=0 qquad textif qquad x=2tan ^-1left(sqrt2 left(1+sqrt5right)right)approx 2.39255$$ So, the derivative does not cancel in the interval and it is always non negative.



                        Funny would also be a Taylor expansion; up to any order, the coefficients are positive.







                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited Aug 13 '17 at 6:56

























                        answered Aug 13 '17 at 6:47









                        Claude Leibovici

                        113k1155127




                        113k1155127




















                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote













                            From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.






                            share|cite|improve this answer
























                              up vote
                              1
                              down vote













                              From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.






                              share|cite|improve this answer






















                                up vote
                                1
                                down vote










                                up vote
                                1
                                down vote









                                From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.






                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                From $f' = tan^2 x-(1-cos x)$, we get $f'' = 2tan x sec^2 x - sin x = sin x(2sec^3 x -1) > 0$ in $left(0, fracpi2right)$. Thus $f'$ is increasing in $left(0, fracpi2right)$ and thus $f'(x) > f'(0) = 0$. Thus $f$ is increasing.







                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                answered Aug 13 '17 at 9:05







                                user348749



























                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote













                                    We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
                                    (AM GM Inequality)



                                    Equality holds when $x=0$



                                    Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$



                                    Hence the result






                                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                                    • I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
                                      – Jean Marie
                                      Sep 27 '17 at 20:00















                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote













                                    We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
                                    (AM GM Inequality)



                                    Equality holds when $x=0$



                                    Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$



                                    Hence the result






                                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                                    • I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
                                      – Jean Marie
                                      Sep 27 '17 at 20:00













                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote









                                    We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
                                    (AM GM Inequality)



                                    Equality holds when $x=0$



                                    Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$



                                    Hence the result






                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    We've $dfrac(sin x + tan x)2ge sqrtsin xtan x$
                                    (AM GM Inequality)



                                    Equality holds when $x=0$



                                    Using expansions of $sec x$ and $cos x$ one can easily show that $sin x tan x>x^2$



                                    Hence the result







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Nov 3 '17 at 18:31









                                    A---B

                                    2,25511135




                                    2,25511135










                                    answered Sep 25 '17 at 17:58









                                    user481779

                                    338116




                                    338116











                                    • I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
                                      – Jean Marie
                                      Sep 27 '17 at 20:00

















                                    • I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
                                      – Jean Marie
                                      Sep 27 '17 at 20:00
















                                    I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
                                    – Jean Marie
                                    Sep 27 '17 at 20:00





                                    I am sorry but you should refrain from answering when you have nothing interesting to say with respect to the question 1) What do you do with $sqrtsin(x)tan(x)$ ? 2) What is the interest of "equality holds when $x=0$" ? 3) Where is the geometry that is asked for by the OP ? etc. Moreover, use Mathjax. Begin by enclosing formulas between dollar signs, then use back slash in front of sin x (with x separated from sin), etc.
                                    – Jean Marie
                                    Sep 27 '17 at 20:00











                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote













                                    Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.




                                    Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...



                                    enter image description here



                                    In the figure,
                                    $overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
                                    $$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
                                    (FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...



                                    $$beginalign
                                    |textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                    impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                    impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
                                    endalign$$



                                    and the result follows. $square$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                                      up vote
                                      1
                                      down vote













                                      Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.




                                      Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...



                                      enter image description here



                                      In the figure,
                                      $overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
                                      $$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
                                      (FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...



                                      $$beginalign
                                      |textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                      impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                      impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
                                      endalign$$



                                      and the result follows. $square$






                                      share|cite|improve this answer






















                                        up vote
                                        1
                                        down vote










                                        up vote
                                        1
                                        down vote









                                        Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.




                                        Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...



                                        enter image description here



                                        In the figure,
                                        $overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
                                        $$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
                                        (FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...



                                        $$beginalign
                                        |textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                        impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                        impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
                                        endalign$$



                                        and the result follows. $square$






                                        share|cite|improve this answer












                                        Here's a far cleaner argument than in my previous answer.




                                        Considering acute (and non-zero) $theta$ ...



                                        enter image description here



                                        In the figure,
                                        $overlinePS$ is a leg of a right triangle with hypotenuse $overlinePT$. Thus,
                                        $$|PS| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < |PT| quadimpliesquad |PR| < frac12|TR| tag$star$$$
                                        (FYI, this proves the convexity of the tangent function: $tanfrac12theta < frac12tantheta$.) Continuing, with "cseg" indicating "circular segment", ...



                                        $$beginalign
                                        |textcsegRS| ;<; |triangle PRS| &;stackrelstar<; frac12|triangle TRS| = frac12left(;|triangle TRO|-|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                        impliesquad|textsectRS| ;=; |textcsegRS| + |triangle SRO| &;<; frac12left(;|triangle TRO|+|triangle SRO|;right) \[6pt]
                                        impliesquad frac12cdot 1^2cdottheta &;<; frac12left(;frac12cdot 1cdot tantheta ;+; frac12cdot 1cdotsintheta;right)
                                        endalign$$



                                        and the result follows. $square$







                                        share|cite|improve this answer












                                        share|cite|improve this answer



                                        share|cite|improve this answer










                                        answered Aug 23 at 17:08









                                        Blue

                                        43.9k868141




                                        43.9k868141




















                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote













                                            In fact one can prove a better inequality



                                            $$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.



                                            Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
                                            $$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.



                                            Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.



                                            $bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer






















                                            • In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:23






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:39










                                            • I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:47






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:05











                                            • @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:46














                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote













                                            In fact one can prove a better inequality



                                            $$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.



                                            Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
                                            $$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.



                                            Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.



                                            $bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer






















                                            • In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:23






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:39










                                            • I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:47






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:05











                                            • @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:46












                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote










                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote









                                            In fact one can prove a better inequality



                                            $$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.



                                            Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
                                            $$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.



                                            Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.



                                            $bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer














                                            In fact one can prove a better inequality



                                            $$ frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 > x$$ for $x in (0, fracpi2)$.



                                            Indeed, the difference $frac 2 sin x + tan x 3 - x$ has derivative
                                            $$frac13 cos^2 x ( 2 cos^3 x - 3 cos ^2 x + 1 )$$ and since the expression $2 t^3 - 3 t^2 + 1 = (t-1)^2 ( 2 t+ 1)$ is $>0$ on $[0,1)$, the function in $x$ is strictly increasing on $[0, pi/2]$.



                                            Obs: One can check this is the "best" inequality of its kind.



                                            $bfAdded:$ Like @Claude Leibovici: noticed for the original question, in this case also the Maclaurin expansion of the difference $2 sin x + tan x - 3 x$ has all the coefficients positive. This can be checked by using the explicit Taylor- Maclaurin expansions of $sin$ and $tan$.







                                            share|cite|improve this answer














                                            share|cite|improve this answer



                                            share|cite|improve this answer








                                            edited Aug 15 '17 at 4:48

























                                            answered Aug 14 '17 at 4:39









                                            orangeskid

                                            28.1k31746




                                            28.1k31746











                                            • In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:23






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:39










                                            • I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:47






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:05











                                            • @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:46
















                                            • In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:23






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:39










                                            • I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
                                              – Claude Leibovici
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 5:47






                                            • 1




                                              @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:05











                                            • @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
                                              – orangeskid
                                              Aug 14 '17 at 6:46















                                            In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
                                            – Claude Leibovici
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 5:23




                                            In fact, all of that seems to be verified, for $n sin (x)+(n-1) tan (x)>(n+1) x$
                                            – Claude Leibovici
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 5:23




                                            1




                                            1




                                            @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
                                            – orangeskid
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 5:39




                                            @Claude Leibovici: Indeed, if we look at the series expansion of $tan x = sum_nge 0 frac U_2n +1 x^2n+1(2n+1)! $, where $U_n$ is the up-down number ( the sequence of numerators is $1, 2, 16, 272, 7936,ldots$ and increasing) should take care of it.
                                            – orangeskid
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 5:39












                                            I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
                                            – Claude Leibovici
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 5:47




                                            I totally agree with you, for sure ! It is amazing ... even if very true !
                                            – Claude Leibovici
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 5:47




                                            1




                                            1




                                            @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
                                            – orangeskid
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 6:05





                                            @Claude Leibovici: Yes! And now we get free of charge new inequalities like $frac2 sin x + tan x3 - x- fracx^520>0$ and all of the others...
                                            – orangeskid
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 6:05













                                            @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
                                            – orangeskid
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 6:46




                                            @Claude Leibovici: the function $x - sin x$ does not have a positive Taylor series, the function $tan( x) - tan ( sin x)$ does...
                                            – orangeskid
                                            Aug 14 '17 at 6:46










                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote













                                            Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.





                                            Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
                                            $$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
                                            Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
                                            beginalign*
                                            fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
                                            > CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
                                            &= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*






                                            share|cite|improve this answer
























                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote













                                              Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.





                                              Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
                                              $$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
                                              Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
                                              beginalign*
                                              fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
                                              > CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
                                              &= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*






                                              share|cite|improve this answer






















                                                up vote
                                                0
                                                down vote










                                                up vote
                                                0
                                                down vote









                                                Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.





                                                Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
                                                $$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
                                                Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
                                                beginalign*
                                                fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
                                                > CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
                                                &= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*






                                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                                Let $AB=AC=1$ and $angle BAC = alpha$. Let $D in AC$ with $DB perp AB$. Let $E in AB$ with $CE perp AB$. Let $F$ and $G$ be the midpoints of $EB$ and $CD$, respectively. Let $H in BD$ with $CH perp AD$. Let $I in FG$ with $IH perp GF$.





                                                Clearly $IH < GD = CG$, therefore
                                                $$IG^2 = GH^2 - IH^2 > GH^2 - CG^2 = CH^2.$$
                                                Therefore $GI>CH$. It follows that
                                                beginalign*
                                                fracsin alpha + tan alpha2 & = fracCE+BD2 = GF = GI+IF
                                                > CH+IF = CH+BH = 2BH \
                                                &= 2tan frac alpha2 > 2 cdot frac alpha2 = alpha.endalign*







                                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                                answered Aug 23 at 16:47









                                                timon92

                                                3,7441724




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