Find $E[Xmid Y]$ where $Y$ is uniform on $[0,1]$ and $X$ is uniform on $[1,e^Y]$

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Let $Y$ a uniform random variable in $[0,1]$, and let $X$ a uniform variable in $[1,e^Y]$



My work



By definition

$E(Xmid Y)=int_xin Axp(xmid y),dx$



Now, I need the function $f(xmid y)$.



By definition, $f(xmid y)=fracf(x,y)f_y(y)$



I'm stuck trying to finding $f(x,y)$ and $f_y(y)$. Can someone help me?







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  • 2




    Hint: $X|Y=y$ is uniformly distributed on $[1,e^y]$.
    – Stan Tendijck
    Jul 14 at 16:30














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $Y$ a uniform random variable in $[0,1]$, and let $X$ a uniform variable in $[1,e^Y]$



My work



By definition

$E(Xmid Y)=int_xin Axp(xmid y),dx$



Now, I need the function $f(xmid y)$.



By definition, $f(xmid y)=fracf(x,y)f_y(y)$



I'm stuck trying to finding $f(x,y)$ and $f_y(y)$. Can someone help me?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    Hint: $X|Y=y$ is uniformly distributed on $[1,e^y]$.
    – Stan Tendijck
    Jul 14 at 16:30












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $Y$ a uniform random variable in $[0,1]$, and let $X$ a uniform variable in $[1,e^Y]$



My work



By definition

$E(Xmid Y)=int_xin Axp(xmid y),dx$



Now, I need the function $f(xmid y)$.



By definition, $f(xmid y)=fracf(x,y)f_y(y)$



I'm stuck trying to finding $f(x,y)$ and $f_y(y)$. Can someone help me?







share|cite|improve this question














Let $Y$ a uniform random variable in $[0,1]$, and let $X$ a uniform variable in $[1,e^Y]$



My work



By definition

$E(Xmid Y)=int_xin Axp(xmid y),dx$



Now, I need the function $f(xmid y)$.



By definition, $f(xmid y)=fracf(x,y)f_y(y)$



I'm stuck trying to finding $f(x,y)$ and $f_y(y)$. Can someone help me?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 24 at 6:47









Did

243k23208443




243k23208443










asked Jul 14 at 16:18









Bvss12

1,614516




1,614516







  • 2




    Hint: $X|Y=y$ is uniformly distributed on $[1,e^y]$.
    – Stan Tendijck
    Jul 14 at 16:30












  • 2




    Hint: $X|Y=y$ is uniformly distributed on $[1,e^y]$.
    – Stan Tendijck
    Jul 14 at 16:30







2




2




Hint: $X|Y=y$ is uniformly distributed on $[1,e^y]$.
– Stan Tendijck
Jul 14 at 16:30




Hint: $X|Y=y$ is uniformly distributed on $[1,e^y]$.
– Stan Tendijck
Jul 14 at 16:30










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
5
down vote













You don't need $f_Y$ nor $f_XY$ here because $f(xmid y)$ is given straightfowardly.



You know that $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^Y]$, what (being $Y$ a r.v.) gives actually the conditional density of $X$ given $Y$. In particular, what we know is that if you are aware of the fact that $Y$ gets the value $y$, then $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^y]$.



On the other hand, if you want $f(ymid x)$, then you should calculate both $f_X$ and $f_XY$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
    – Bvss12
    Jul 14 at 16:42







  • 1




    No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
    – Alejandro Nasif Salum
    Jul 14 at 17:05







  • 2




    Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
    – Bvss12
    Jul 14 at 17:07

















up vote
0
down vote













My 2 cents... and I'm not an expert so see if this makes sense to you.



$E[X|Y]$ is a random variable and not a constant. So for my attack I'll first get $E[X|Y=k]$ and then once I get that switch $k$ for $Y$.



$$E[X|Y=k] = int_1^e^k x f_Y(x|y=k) dx$$



We know that $X|Y=k sim Uniform(1,e^k)$ which means $f_Y(x|y=k) =frac1e^k-1$



So with this knowledge,



$$=int_1^e^k fracxe^k-1 dx =frac1e^k-1 int_1^e^k xdx$$



$$=frace^2k-12(e^k-1)$$



Finally to get $E[X|Y]$ just replace $k$ with $Y$.



$$E[X|Y]=frace^2Y-12(e^Y-1)$$






share|cite|improve this answer






















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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    5
    down vote













    You don't need $f_Y$ nor $f_XY$ here because $f(xmid y)$ is given straightfowardly.



    You know that $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^Y]$, what (being $Y$ a r.v.) gives actually the conditional density of $X$ given $Y$. In particular, what we know is that if you are aware of the fact that $Y$ gets the value $y$, then $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^y]$.



    On the other hand, if you want $f(ymid x)$, then you should calculate both $f_X$ and $f_XY$.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 16:42







    • 1




      No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
      – Alejandro Nasif Salum
      Jul 14 at 17:05







    • 2




      Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 17:07














    up vote
    5
    down vote













    You don't need $f_Y$ nor $f_XY$ here because $f(xmid y)$ is given straightfowardly.



    You know that $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^Y]$, what (being $Y$ a r.v.) gives actually the conditional density of $X$ given $Y$. In particular, what we know is that if you are aware of the fact that $Y$ gets the value $y$, then $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^y]$.



    On the other hand, if you want $f(ymid x)$, then you should calculate both $f_X$ and $f_XY$.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 16:42







    • 1




      No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
      – Alejandro Nasif Salum
      Jul 14 at 17:05







    • 2




      Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 17:07












    up vote
    5
    down vote










    up vote
    5
    down vote









    You don't need $f_Y$ nor $f_XY$ here because $f(xmid y)$ is given straightfowardly.



    You know that $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^Y]$, what (being $Y$ a r.v.) gives actually the conditional density of $X$ given $Y$. In particular, what we know is that if you are aware of the fact that $Y$ gets the value $y$, then $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^y]$.



    On the other hand, if you want $f(ymid x)$, then you should calculate both $f_X$ and $f_XY$.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    You don't need $f_Y$ nor $f_XY$ here because $f(xmid y)$ is given straightfowardly.



    You know that $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^Y]$, what (being $Y$ a r.v.) gives actually the conditional density of $X$ given $Y$. In particular, what we know is that if you are aware of the fact that $Y$ gets the value $y$, then $Xsim mathcalU[1,e^y]$.



    On the other hand, if you want $f(ymid x)$, then you should calculate both $f_X$ and $f_XY$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Aug 24 at 6:18









    Michael Hardy

    205k23187463




    205k23187463










    answered Jul 14 at 16:32









    Alejandro Nasif Salum

    3,15617




    3,15617











    • Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 16:42







    • 1




      No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
      – Alejandro Nasif Salum
      Jul 14 at 17:05







    • 2




      Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 17:07
















    • Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 16:42







    • 1




      No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
      – Alejandro Nasif Salum
      Jul 14 at 17:05







    • 2




      Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
      – Bvss12
      Jul 14 at 17:07















    Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
    – Bvss12
    Jul 14 at 16:42





    Okay, then $f(x|y)= begincases 0, & x le 1 \ x, & 1 < x le e^Y \ 1, & x > e^Y. endcases$ no? but i don't sure of this, can you review this? thanks!
    – Bvss12
    Jul 14 at 16:42





    1




    1




    No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
    – Alejandro Nasif Salum
    Jul 14 at 17:05





    No, first of all I think you're confusing the Cumulative Distribution Function (CDF) with the Probability Density Function (PDF). That is, $F_X$ and $f_X$. So the density is $$f(x|y)= begincases k & 1 le x le e^y \0 & otherwise,\endcases$$ where $k$ is such that guarantee this integrates to $1$.
    – Alejandro Nasif Salum
    Jul 14 at 17:05





    2




    2




    Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
    – Bvss12
    Jul 14 at 17:07




    Oh, thanks... sorry. thanks for your answer.
    – Bvss12
    Jul 14 at 17:07










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    My 2 cents... and I'm not an expert so see if this makes sense to you.



    $E[X|Y]$ is a random variable and not a constant. So for my attack I'll first get $E[X|Y=k]$ and then once I get that switch $k$ for $Y$.



    $$E[X|Y=k] = int_1^e^k x f_Y(x|y=k) dx$$



    We know that $X|Y=k sim Uniform(1,e^k)$ which means $f_Y(x|y=k) =frac1e^k-1$



    So with this knowledge,



    $$=int_1^e^k fracxe^k-1 dx =frac1e^k-1 int_1^e^k xdx$$



    $$=frace^2k-12(e^k-1)$$



    Finally to get $E[X|Y]$ just replace $k$ with $Y$.



    $$E[X|Y]=frace^2Y-12(e^Y-1)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      My 2 cents... and I'm not an expert so see if this makes sense to you.



      $E[X|Y]$ is a random variable and not a constant. So for my attack I'll first get $E[X|Y=k]$ and then once I get that switch $k$ for $Y$.



      $$E[X|Y=k] = int_1^e^k x f_Y(x|y=k) dx$$



      We know that $X|Y=k sim Uniform(1,e^k)$ which means $f_Y(x|y=k) =frac1e^k-1$



      So with this knowledge,



      $$=int_1^e^k fracxe^k-1 dx =frac1e^k-1 int_1^e^k xdx$$



      $$=frace^2k-12(e^k-1)$$



      Finally to get $E[X|Y]$ just replace $k$ with $Y$.



      $$E[X|Y]=frace^2Y-12(e^Y-1)$$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        My 2 cents... and I'm not an expert so see if this makes sense to you.



        $E[X|Y]$ is a random variable and not a constant. So for my attack I'll first get $E[X|Y=k]$ and then once I get that switch $k$ for $Y$.



        $$E[X|Y=k] = int_1^e^k x f_Y(x|y=k) dx$$



        We know that $X|Y=k sim Uniform(1,e^k)$ which means $f_Y(x|y=k) =frac1e^k-1$



        So with this knowledge,



        $$=int_1^e^k fracxe^k-1 dx =frac1e^k-1 int_1^e^k xdx$$



        $$=frace^2k-12(e^k-1)$$



        Finally to get $E[X|Y]$ just replace $k$ with $Y$.



        $$E[X|Y]=frace^2Y-12(e^Y-1)$$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        My 2 cents... and I'm not an expert so see if this makes sense to you.



        $E[X|Y]$ is a random variable and not a constant. So for my attack I'll first get $E[X|Y=k]$ and then once I get that switch $k$ for $Y$.



        $$E[X|Y=k] = int_1^e^k x f_Y(x|y=k) dx$$



        We know that $X|Y=k sim Uniform(1,e^k)$ which means $f_Y(x|y=k) =frac1e^k-1$



        So with this knowledge,



        $$=int_1^e^k fracxe^k-1 dx =frac1e^k-1 int_1^e^k xdx$$



        $$=frace^2k-12(e^k-1)$$



        Finally to get $E[X|Y]$ just replace $k$ with $Y$.



        $$E[X|Y]=frace^2Y-12(e^Y-1)$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Aug 24 at 7:38

























        answered Aug 24 at 7:29









        HJ_beginner

        57415




        57415



























             

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