Vtyjkyuk

It is a question 59 on page 87 from Ross's book (Introduction to Probability Models)

Let $X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4$ are independent continuous random variables with a common distribution function F and let

$p = P(X_1 < X_2 > X_3 < X_4)$

Just as the Title, what does it mean?
Or similar questions with such an inequity?

Thanks

Update 1:

The solution says:
Use the fact that F(Xi) is a uniform (0,1) random variable to obtain.
But where is this fact?

Update: A similar question

How can I compute an expression for $P(X_1>X_2>X_3>X_4)$ if $X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4$ are normal and mututally independent?

BTW

I am not a native-English speaker, and I am learning it by myself.

This seems to be a rather unconventional use of inequalities as GEdgar points out in his comment and there is no typo. The "chain" of inequalities $X_1<X_2>X_3<X_4$ means all of the following hold:
$$
X_1<X_2, X_2>X_3, X_3<X_4.
$$

Here is the original problem:

Here is the official solution by Ross:

^{Thanks to http://math2.uncc.edu/~imsonin/Ross_Probability10ed_Student_Solutions2010.pdf}

It's the probability that $X_1$ is less than $X_2$ AND that $X_2$ is greater than $X_3$ AND that $X_3$ is less than $X_4$. That's all.