Is there a real function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x·f·log f = 1$?
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IâÂÂm looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x ÷ f ÷ log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?
Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f ÷ log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. ThatâÂÂs what IâÂÂm really interested in. But thatâÂÂs a separate question maybe.
real-analysis integration implicit-function
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
IâÂÂm looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x ÷ f ÷ log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?
Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f ÷ log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. ThatâÂÂs what IâÂÂm really interested in. But thatâÂÂs a separate question maybe.
real-analysis integration implicit-function
1
Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
â Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03
@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. IâÂÂm only interested in integrability properties.
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
IâÂÂm looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x ÷ f ÷ log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?
Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f ÷ log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. ThatâÂÂs what IâÂÂm really interested in. But thatâÂÂs a separate question maybe.
real-analysis integration implicit-function
IâÂÂm looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x ÷ f ÷ log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?
Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f ÷ log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. ThatâÂÂs what IâÂÂm really interested in. But thatâÂÂs a separate question maybe.
real-analysis integration implicit-function
edited Aug 24 at 7:29
Arnaud Mortier
19.6k22159
19.6k22159
asked Aug 24 at 6:58
k.stm
10.4k22149
10.4k22149
1
Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
â Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03
@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. IâÂÂm only interested in integrability properties.
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09
add a comment |Â
1
Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
â Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03
@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. IâÂÂm only interested in integrability properties.
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09
1
1
Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
â Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03
Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
â Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03
@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. IâÂÂm only interested in integrability properties.
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09
@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. IâÂÂm only interested in integrability properties.
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
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1
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Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.
We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.
Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$
Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.
Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.
We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.
Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.
We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.
Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.
We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.
Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.
Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.
We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.
Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.
answered Aug 24 at 11:20
GEdgar
58.8k264163
58.8k264163
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
add a comment |Â
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
Great, thank you very much!
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$
Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.
Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$
Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.
Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$
Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.
Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.
Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$
Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.
Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.
edited Aug 24 at 7:10
answered Aug 24 at 7:03
Arnaud Mortier
19.6k22159
19.6k22159
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
add a comment |Â
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
Sorry, I wasnâÂÂt clear. See my edit â¦
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
@k.stm I edited as well.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
â Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17
add a comment |Â
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1
Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
â Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03
@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. IâÂÂm only interested in integrability properties.
â k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09