Is there a real function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x·f·log f = 1$?

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I’m looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x · f · log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?



Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f · log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. That’s what I’m really interested in. But that’s a separate question maybe.







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    Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
    – Sobi
    Aug 24 at 7:03











  • @Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. I’m only interested in integrability properties.
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:09















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I’m looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x · f · log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?



Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f · log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. That’s what I’m really interested in. But that’s a separate question maybe.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
    – Sobi
    Aug 24 at 7:03











  • @Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. I’m only interested in integrability properties.
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:09













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I’m looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x · f · log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?



Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f · log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. That’s what I’m really interested in. But that’s a separate question maybe.







share|cite|improve this question














I’m looking for a real-valued function $f$ on $(0..1)$ such that $x · f · log f = 1$. Is there such function? Is it integrable on $(0..1)$?



Why? This could yield an integrable function $f$ such that $f · log f = 1/x$ is not integrable on $(0..1)$. That’s what I’m really interested in. But that’s a separate question maybe.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 24 at 7:29









Arnaud Mortier

19.6k22159




19.6k22159










asked Aug 24 at 6:58









k.stm

10.4k22149




10.4k22149







  • 1




    Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
    – Sobi
    Aug 24 at 7:03











  • @Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. I’m only interested in integrability properties.
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:09













  • 1




    Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
    – Sobi
    Aug 24 at 7:03











  • @Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. I’m only interested in integrability properties.
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:09








1




1




Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
– Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03





Do you maybe want it to be defined on the open interval $(0, 1)$? Otherwise you could set $x=0$ in your condition to find that $0 = 0cdot f(0)cdot log f(0) = 1.$
– Sobi
Aug 24 at 7:03













@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. I’m only interested in integrability properties.
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09





@Sobi Ah, yes. Alternatively, I meant the condition to hold almost everywhere. I’m only interested in integrability properties.
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:09











2 Answers
2






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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
with W



Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.

We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.

Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Great, thank you very much!
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 12:43

















up vote
3
down vote













Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$



Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.



Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:10










  • @k.stm I edited as well.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:11










  • Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:14











  • You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:17










Your Answer




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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
with W



Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.

We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.

Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Great, thank you very much!
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 12:43














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
with W



Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.

We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.

Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Great, thank you very much!
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 12:43












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
with W



Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.

We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.

Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer












Your function, in terms of the Lambert W function, is
$$
f(x) = frac1xW(1/x)
$$
The graph looks like this
with W



Although $f$ goes to $+infty$ as $x to 0$ more slowly than $1/x$, it still goes to $+infty$ fast enough that the integral $int_0^1 f(x);dx$ diverges.

We can see this from the antiderivative. Function
$$
F(x) = frac1W(1/x)-logbig(W(1/x)big) .
$$
satisfies $F'(x) = f(x)$.

Now as $x to 0^+$, we have $W(1/x) to +infty$, so $1/W(1/x) to 0$ and $-log(W(1/x)) to -infty$. So $F(x) to -infty$, which means $int_x^1 f(t) ;dy = F(1) - F(x) to +infty$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 24 at 11:20









GEdgar

58.8k264163




58.8k264163











  • Great, thank you very much!
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 12:43
















  • Great, thank you very much!
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 12:43















Great, thank you very much!
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43




Great, thank you very much!
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 12:43










up vote
3
down vote













Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$



Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.



Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:10










  • @k.stm I edited as well.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:11










  • Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:14











  • You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:17














up vote
3
down vote













Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$



Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.



Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:10










  • @k.stm I edited as well.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:11










  • Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:14











  • You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:17












up vote
3
down vote










up vote
3
down vote









Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$



Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.



Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.






share|cite|improve this answer














Pick $xin (0,1)$, what you want to find is $y$ such that $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$



Note that $e^frac 1xin (e,infty)$ and that $zmapsto z^z$ maps $[1,infty)$ bijectively onto itself.



Since $(e,infty)subset [1,infty)$, the equation (in $y$) $$y^y=e^frac 1x$$ has a unique solution in $[1,infty)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 24 at 7:10

























answered Aug 24 at 7:03









Arnaud Mortier

19.6k22159




19.6k22159











  • Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:10










  • @k.stm I edited as well.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:11










  • Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:14











  • You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:17
















  • Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:10










  • @k.stm I edited as well.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:11










  • Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
    – k.stm
    Aug 24 at 7:14











  • You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 24 at 7:17















Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10




Sorry, I wasn’t clear. See my edit …
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:10












@k.stm I edited as well.
– Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11




@k.stm I edited as well.
– Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:11












Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14





Neat, thank you! Oh, can one say anything about the integrability of $f$?
– k.stm
Aug 24 at 7:14













You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
– Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17




You're welcome. The answer is still incomplete though, since you added a question about integrability.
– Arnaud Mortier
Aug 24 at 7:17

















 

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