Arguments/phases due to branch cut for following keyhole contour integral?

Multi tool use
Multi tool use

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



$$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



$$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



from the contour integral



$$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!










share|cite|improve this question



























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



    First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



    $$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



    I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



    What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



    $$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



    from the contour integral



    $$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



    where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



    I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



      First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



      $$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



      I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



      What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



      $$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



      from the contour integral



      $$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



      where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



      I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question















      I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



      First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



      $$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



      I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



      What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



      $$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



      from the contour integral



      $$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



      where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



      I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!







      complex-analysis logarithms contour-integration






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Sep 3 at 8:28

























      asked Sep 2 at 7:10









      user107224

      1286




      1286




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
          $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



          The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



          A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );













             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2902424%2farguments-phases-due-to-branch-cut-for-following-keyhole-contour-integral%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            0
            down vote













            You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
            $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



            The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



            A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
              $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



              The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



              A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
                $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



                The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



                A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
                $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



                The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



                A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Sep 3 at 17:41









                J Prestone

                142




                142



























                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded















































                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2902424%2farguments-phases-due-to-branch-cut-for-following-keyhole-contour-integral%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    0SnIouLfSishQKE mStt50 1EwdO22oKt HDg,YkRF7uefRqn8lj roI9
                    T9zoTkgFeDRW,RIfhED0iA

                    這個網誌中的熱門文章

                    How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

                    Propositional logic and tautologies

                    Distribution of Stopped Wiener Process with Stochastic Volatility