Arguments/phases due to branch cut for following keyhole contour integral?

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I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



$$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



$$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



from the contour integral



$$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!










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    up vote
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    I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



    First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



    $$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



    I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



    What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



    $$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



    from the contour integral



    $$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



    where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



    I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



      First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



      $$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



      I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



      What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



      $$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



      from the contour integral



      $$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



      where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



      I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question















      I was given the a contour integral problem which I am rather unsure about.



      First, I was asked to classify the singularities and required branch cuts for



      $$f(z)=frac1z^3log[(1-z)]^2.$$



      I know that $z=0$ is a pole of order 3, and $z=1$ is a branch point, and thus for the keyhole contour, I need to perform a branch cut of $[1,infty)$. I also know that the residue at $z=0$ is $1$, which I obtained using a Laurent expansion.



      What confuses me is the required phases $e^iphi$ necessary to obtain the integral



      $$int_1^infty fracln(x-1)x^3 textdx$$



      from the contour integral



      $$oint_Gamma f(z)text dz,$$



      where $Gamma$ is the keyhole contour.



      I know that for normal keyhole contour integrals with positive axis branch cut, for the straight portion of the contour approaching from $x=infty$ to $x=1$, I need to include a phase of $e^2ipi$. However, I also noticed that the function inside the logarithm is $x-1$ instead of $1-x$, so I suspect I need to include a phase $e^ipi$ representing the minus one somewhere. I am confused as to how to account for them, the signs of the phase for the straight portions of the contour, and where I should even be placing them in the first place. All help is appreciated, thank you!







      complex-analysis logarithms contour-integration






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      edited Sep 3 at 8:28

























      asked Sep 2 at 7:10









      user107224

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          You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
          $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



          The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



          A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






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            You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
            $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



            The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



            A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
              $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



              The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



              A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
                $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



                The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



                A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                You'll have 3 integrals for your keyhole contour (I've gone CCW around the point $z=1$),
                $int_infty^1 f + int_z-1 f + int_1^infty f$.



                The natural logarithm has its usual branch cut along the $-Re$ axis. The argument (angle) of whatever the natural log is taken of (here, $1-z$) therefore has to stay in the branch: $-pi < arg(1-z) le pi$.



                A point $z$ on the first contour ($int_infty^1$, running just above the $+Re$ axis), maps to a $1-z$ in the 3rd quadrant (just below or in the $-Im$ direction of the $-Re$ axis--ie an argument of $-pi+epsilon$). To allow integration of the logarithm, we'd like this value of $1-z$ to be put in $re^itheta$ form. For the angle $theta$, it should be easy to see it's $-pi+epsilon$. For the modulus, we get $x-1$, where $x=Re(z)$. This gives $(x-1)e^-i(pi-epsilon)$ for this first contour (where note we've been careful to keep the angle within the stated branch). Similar reasoning gives $(x-1)e^i(pi-epsilon)$ for the third contour (epsilon arbitrary). Hope this helps.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                answered Sep 3 at 17:41









                J Prestone

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