if $ A^2 = -I $ then $ A $ has no real eigenvalues

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Given $ A $ is a $ 2 times 2 $ matrix over $ mathbf R$ that $ A^2 = -I $ and I need to prove $ A $ has no real eigen values.



$ A^2 = -I rightarrow A^2 +I = 0 $



I guess it is something about $ x^2 +1 = 0 $ has no real solutions... but if someone can show me the connection to matrices (if it is about that?) I mean how can I conclude anything from that about the characteristic polynomial of $ A $










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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite












    Given $ A $ is a $ 2 times 2 $ matrix over $ mathbf R$ that $ A^2 = -I $ and I need to prove $ A $ has no real eigen values.



    $ A^2 = -I rightarrow A^2 +I = 0 $



    I guess it is something about $ x^2 +1 = 0 $ has no real solutions... but if someone can show me the connection to matrices (if it is about that?) I mean how can I conclude anything from that about the characteristic polynomial of $ A $










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      Given $ A $ is a $ 2 times 2 $ matrix over $ mathbf R$ that $ A^2 = -I $ and I need to prove $ A $ has no real eigen values.



      $ A^2 = -I rightarrow A^2 +I = 0 $



      I guess it is something about $ x^2 +1 = 0 $ has no real solutions... but if someone can show me the connection to matrices (if it is about that?) I mean how can I conclude anything from that about the characteristic polynomial of $ A $










      share|cite|improve this question















      Given $ A $ is a $ 2 times 2 $ matrix over $ mathbf R$ that $ A^2 = -I $ and I need to prove $ A $ has no real eigen values.



      $ A^2 = -I rightarrow A^2 +I = 0 $



      I guess it is something about $ x^2 +1 = 0 $ has no real solutions... but if someone can show me the connection to matrices (if it is about that?) I mean how can I conclude anything from that about the characteristic polynomial of $ A $







      linear-algebra






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      edited Sep 2 at 9:08









      Christian Blatter

      166k7110311




      166k7110311










      asked Sep 2 at 9:00









      bm1125

      38216




      38216




















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          By assumption, $p(x) = x^2 +1$ nullifies $boldsymbol A$. Since $boldsymbol A$ is $2times 2$, the characteristic polynomial of $boldsymbol A$ must be $p(x)$. Hence $boldsymbol A$ has no real eigenvalues since $p(x)=0$ has no real solutions.



          Concepts related: minimal polynomial, characteristic polynomial.



          Facts assumed in advance:



          1. For $boldsymbol A in mathrm M_n(Bbb F)$, where $Bbb F$ is a number field, the characteristic polynomial must be of degree $n$.

          2. Characteristic polynomials nullifies the matrix [Cayley-Hamilton theorem].

          3. Minimal polynomial divides every nullifying polynomial, including the characteristic polynomial.





          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thanks for the elaborated answer!
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:27










          • Glad to help here!
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:28










          • Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:33






          • 1




            Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:41

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Hint: Suppose $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $lambda$. We then have
          $$ 0 = mathbf0v = (A^2+I)v = (lambda^2+1)v $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:07










          • @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
            – Henning Makholm
            Sep 2 at 9:11


















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          For any eigenvalue, $lambda$, and the associated eigenvector, $v$, we have
          $$
          Av=lambda v
          $$
          which means
          $$
          -v=A^2v=lambda^2v
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:19











          • Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:24






          • 1




            @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
            – robjohn♦
            Sep 2 at 9:38


















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Since $A^2+I = 0$, the polynomial $x^2+1$ annihilates the matrix $A$. Therefore the minimal polynomial $m_A$ of $A$ divides $x^2 + 1$ so



          $$sigma(A) subseteq textzeroes of m_A subseteq textzeroes of x^2 + 1 = i, -i$$



          Hence $sigma(A) cap mathbbR = emptyset$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes








            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            By assumption, $p(x) = x^2 +1$ nullifies $boldsymbol A$. Since $boldsymbol A$ is $2times 2$, the characteristic polynomial of $boldsymbol A$ must be $p(x)$. Hence $boldsymbol A$ has no real eigenvalues since $p(x)=0$ has no real solutions.



            Concepts related: minimal polynomial, characteristic polynomial.



            Facts assumed in advance:



            1. For $boldsymbol A in mathrm M_n(Bbb F)$, where $Bbb F$ is a number field, the characteristic polynomial must be of degree $n$.

            2. Characteristic polynomials nullifies the matrix [Cayley-Hamilton theorem].

            3. Minimal polynomial divides every nullifying polynomial, including the characteristic polynomial.





            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • thanks for the elaborated answer!
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:27










            • Glad to help here!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:28










            • Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:33






            • 1




              Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:41














            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            By assumption, $p(x) = x^2 +1$ nullifies $boldsymbol A$. Since $boldsymbol A$ is $2times 2$, the characteristic polynomial of $boldsymbol A$ must be $p(x)$. Hence $boldsymbol A$ has no real eigenvalues since $p(x)=0$ has no real solutions.



            Concepts related: minimal polynomial, characteristic polynomial.



            Facts assumed in advance:



            1. For $boldsymbol A in mathrm M_n(Bbb F)$, where $Bbb F$ is a number field, the characteristic polynomial must be of degree $n$.

            2. Characteristic polynomials nullifies the matrix [Cayley-Hamilton theorem].

            3. Minimal polynomial divides every nullifying polynomial, including the characteristic polynomial.





            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • thanks for the elaborated answer!
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:27










            • Glad to help here!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:28










            • Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:33






            • 1




              Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:41












            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            By assumption, $p(x) = x^2 +1$ nullifies $boldsymbol A$. Since $boldsymbol A$ is $2times 2$, the characteristic polynomial of $boldsymbol A$ must be $p(x)$. Hence $boldsymbol A$ has no real eigenvalues since $p(x)=0$ has no real solutions.



            Concepts related: minimal polynomial, characteristic polynomial.



            Facts assumed in advance:



            1. For $boldsymbol A in mathrm M_n(Bbb F)$, where $Bbb F$ is a number field, the characteristic polynomial must be of degree $n$.

            2. Characteristic polynomials nullifies the matrix [Cayley-Hamilton theorem].

            3. Minimal polynomial divides every nullifying polynomial, including the characteristic polynomial.





            share|cite|improve this answer














            By assumption, $p(x) = x^2 +1$ nullifies $boldsymbol A$. Since $boldsymbol A$ is $2times 2$, the characteristic polynomial of $boldsymbol A$ must be $p(x)$. Hence $boldsymbol A$ has no real eigenvalues since $p(x)=0$ has no real solutions.



            Concepts related: minimal polynomial, characteristic polynomial.



            Facts assumed in advance:



            1. For $boldsymbol A in mathrm M_n(Bbb F)$, where $Bbb F$ is a number field, the characteristic polynomial must be of degree $n$.

            2. Characteristic polynomials nullifies the matrix [Cayley-Hamilton theorem].

            3. Minimal polynomial divides every nullifying polynomial, including the characteristic polynomial.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 2 at 9:08

























            answered Sep 2 at 9:03









            xbh

            3,515320




            3,515320











            • thanks for the elaborated answer!
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:27










            • Glad to help here!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:28










            • Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:33






            • 1




              Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:41
















            • thanks for the elaborated answer!
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:27










            • Glad to help here!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:28










            • Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:33






            • 1




              Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:41















            thanks for the elaborated answer!
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:27




            thanks for the elaborated answer!
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:27












            Glad to help here!
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:28




            Glad to help here!
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:28












            Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:33




            Would you mind explaning what is the implications of a matrix without real eigenvalues? I mean does it mean anything about the determinant maybe?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:33




            1




            1




            Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:41




            Seems not so much consequences about determinants, since the constant term of the characteristic polynomial only possibly differentiate from the determinant a sign.
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:41










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Hint: Suppose $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $lambda$. We then have
            $$ 0 = mathbf0v = (A^2+I)v = (lambda^2+1)v $$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:07










            • @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
              – Henning Makholm
              Sep 2 at 9:11















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Hint: Suppose $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $lambda$. We then have
            $$ 0 = mathbf0v = (A^2+I)v = (lambda^2+1)v $$






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:07










            • @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
              – Henning Makholm
              Sep 2 at 9:11













            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Hint: Suppose $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $lambda$. We then have
            $$ 0 = mathbf0v = (A^2+I)v = (lambda^2+1)v $$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Hint: Suppose $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $lambda$. We then have
            $$ 0 = mathbf0v = (A^2+I)v = (lambda^2+1)v $$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 2 at 9:11

























            answered Sep 2 at 9:05









            Henning Makholm

            231k16297529




            231k16297529











            • Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:07










            • @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
              – Henning Makholm
              Sep 2 at 9:11

















            • Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:07










            • @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
              – Henning Makholm
              Sep 2 at 9:11
















            Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:07




            Do you mean that if $ x^2 + 1 $ is not the actual polynomial of $ A $ it should be at least a root of the characteristic polynomial of $ A $ ?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:07












            @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
            – Henning Makholm
            Sep 2 at 9:11





            @bm1125: Edited with a different hint that is actually correct
            – Henning Makholm
            Sep 2 at 9:11











            up vote
            2
            down vote













            For any eigenvalue, $lambda$, and the associated eigenvector, $v$, we have
            $$
            Av=lambda v
            $$
            which means
            $$
            -v=A^2v=lambda^2v
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:19











            • Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:24






            • 1




              @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
              – robjohn♦
              Sep 2 at 9:38















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            For any eigenvalue, $lambda$, and the associated eigenvector, $v$, we have
            $$
            Av=lambda v
            $$
            which means
            $$
            -v=A^2v=lambda^2v
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:19











            • Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:24






            • 1




              @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
              – robjohn♦
              Sep 2 at 9:38













            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            For any eigenvalue, $lambda$, and the associated eigenvector, $v$, we have
            $$
            Av=lambda v
            $$
            which means
            $$
            -v=A^2v=lambda^2v
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            For any eigenvalue, $lambda$, and the associated eigenvector, $v$, we have
            $$
            Av=lambda v
            $$
            which means
            $$
            -v=A^2v=lambda^2v
            $$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Sep 2 at 9:12









            robjohn♦

            259k26298613




            259k26298613











            • If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:19











            • Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:24






            • 1




              @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
              – robjohn♦
              Sep 2 at 9:38

















            • If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
              – bm1125
              Sep 2 at 9:19











            • Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
              – xbh
              Sep 2 at 9:24






            • 1




              @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
              – robjohn♦
              Sep 2 at 9:38
















            If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:19





            If $ lambda $ is eigen value of $ A $ then $ lambda^2 $ is eigenvalue of $ A^2 $ ?
            – bm1125
            Sep 2 at 9:19













            Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:24




            Oh right, definition would be the quickest way. Thanks!
            – xbh
            Sep 2 at 9:24




            1




            1




            @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
            – robjohn♦
            Sep 2 at 9:38





            @bm1125: indeed, with the same eigenvector: $A^2v=A(lambda v)=lambda Av=lambda^2v$.
            – robjohn♦
            Sep 2 at 9:38











            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Since $A^2+I = 0$, the polynomial $x^2+1$ annihilates the matrix $A$. Therefore the minimal polynomial $m_A$ of $A$ divides $x^2 + 1$ so



            $$sigma(A) subseteq textzeroes of m_A subseteq textzeroes of x^2 + 1 = i, -i$$



            Hence $sigma(A) cap mathbbR = emptyset$.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Since $A^2+I = 0$, the polynomial $x^2+1$ annihilates the matrix $A$. Therefore the minimal polynomial $m_A$ of $A$ divides $x^2 + 1$ so



              $$sigma(A) subseteq textzeroes of m_A subseteq textzeroes of x^2 + 1 = i, -i$$



              Hence $sigma(A) cap mathbbR = emptyset$.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                2
                down vote










                up vote
                2
                down vote









                Since $A^2+I = 0$, the polynomial $x^2+1$ annihilates the matrix $A$. Therefore the minimal polynomial $m_A$ of $A$ divides $x^2 + 1$ so



                $$sigma(A) subseteq textzeroes of m_A subseteq textzeroes of x^2 + 1 = i, -i$$



                Hence $sigma(A) cap mathbbR = emptyset$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Since $A^2+I = 0$, the polynomial $x^2+1$ annihilates the matrix $A$. Therefore the minimal polynomial $m_A$ of $A$ divides $x^2 + 1$ so



                $$sigma(A) subseteq textzeroes of m_A subseteq textzeroes of x^2 + 1 = i, -i$$



                Hence $sigma(A) cap mathbbR = emptyset$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Sep 2 at 10:00









                mechanodroid

                24k52244




                24k52244



























                     

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