Continuity of $f(x,y)$ which is not defined along a path

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Consider $f(x,y) = x^2+y^2$ when $x-y neq 0$ and $0$ if $(x,y) = (0,0)$.



This function is easily shown to be continuous along all paths, but along $x=y$ it is not defined!



So will it said to be continuous at $0,0$ ?










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  • How have you shown 'easily' that $f$ is continuous along the path, $t to (t,t)$, say?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:23










  • For any other path, we simply have to use first definition, which goes to 0
    – jeea
    Sep 2 at 9:35










  • Yes of course, but you have said $f$ is continuous along all paths. The function $t mapsto (t,t)$ is a path, but $f$ is not continuous along it. There are many other paths which intersect the ray $x=y$. Do you see the problem?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:53














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Consider $f(x,y) = x^2+y^2$ when $x-y neq 0$ and $0$ if $(x,y) = (0,0)$.



This function is easily shown to be continuous along all paths, but along $x=y$ it is not defined!



So will it said to be continuous at $0,0$ ?










share|cite|improve this question





















  • How have you shown 'easily' that $f$ is continuous along the path, $t to (t,t)$, say?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:23










  • For any other path, we simply have to use first definition, which goes to 0
    – jeea
    Sep 2 at 9:35










  • Yes of course, but you have said $f$ is continuous along all paths. The function $t mapsto (t,t)$ is a path, but $f$ is not continuous along it. There are many other paths which intersect the ray $x=y$. Do you see the problem?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:53












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Consider $f(x,y) = x^2+y^2$ when $x-y neq 0$ and $0$ if $(x,y) = (0,0)$.



This function is easily shown to be continuous along all paths, but along $x=y$ it is not defined!



So will it said to be continuous at $0,0$ ?










share|cite|improve this question













Consider $f(x,y) = x^2+y^2$ when $x-y neq 0$ and $0$ if $(x,y) = (0,0)$.



This function is easily shown to be continuous along all paths, but along $x=y$ it is not defined!



So will it said to be continuous at $0,0$ ?







multivariable-calculus continuity






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asked Sep 2 at 9:04









jeea

46312




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  • How have you shown 'easily' that $f$ is continuous along the path, $t to (t,t)$, say?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:23










  • For any other path, we simply have to use first definition, which goes to 0
    – jeea
    Sep 2 at 9:35










  • Yes of course, but you have said $f$ is continuous along all paths. The function $t mapsto (t,t)$ is a path, but $f$ is not continuous along it. There are many other paths which intersect the ray $x=y$. Do you see the problem?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:53
















  • How have you shown 'easily' that $f$ is continuous along the path, $t to (t,t)$, say?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:23










  • For any other path, we simply have to use first definition, which goes to 0
    – jeea
    Sep 2 at 9:35










  • Yes of course, but you have said $f$ is continuous along all paths. The function $t mapsto (t,t)$ is a path, but $f$ is not continuous along it. There are many other paths which intersect the ray $x=y$. Do you see the problem?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:53















How have you shown 'easily' that $f$ is continuous along the path, $t to (t,t)$, say?
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:23




How have you shown 'easily' that $f$ is continuous along the path, $t to (t,t)$, say?
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:23












For any other path, we simply have to use first definition, which goes to 0
– jeea
Sep 2 at 9:35




For any other path, we simply have to use first definition, which goes to 0
– jeea
Sep 2 at 9:35












Yes of course, but you have said $f$ is continuous along all paths. The function $t mapsto (t,t)$ is a path, but $f$ is not continuous along it. There are many other paths which intersect the ray $x=y$. Do you see the problem?
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:53




Yes of course, but you have said $f$ is continuous along all paths. The function $t mapsto (t,t)$ is a path, but $f$ is not continuous along it. There are many other paths which intersect the ray $x=y$. Do you see the problem?
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:53










1 Answer
1






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up vote
1
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For the continuity at $(0,0)$ it doesn't mind if $f(x,y)$ is not defined for $x=yneq 0$, indeed we have that trivially



$$lim_substack(x,y)to(0,0)\quad :xneq yx^2+y^2=0=f(0,0)$$



therefore by definition $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:20










  • @DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:21










  • I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:24










  • @DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:39










  • The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:52










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote













For the continuity at $(0,0)$ it doesn't mind if $f(x,y)$ is not defined for $x=yneq 0$, indeed we have that trivially



$$lim_substack(x,y)to(0,0)\quad :xneq yx^2+y^2=0=f(0,0)$$



therefore by definition $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:20










  • @DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:21










  • I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:24










  • @DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:39










  • The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:52














up vote
1
down vote













For the continuity at $(0,0)$ it doesn't mind if $f(x,y)$ is not defined for $x=yneq 0$, indeed we have that trivially



$$lim_substack(x,y)to(0,0)\quad :xneq yx^2+y^2=0=f(0,0)$$



therefore by definition $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:20










  • @DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:21










  • I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:24










  • @DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:39










  • The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:52












up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









For the continuity at $(0,0)$ it doesn't mind if $f(x,y)$ is not defined for $x=yneq 0$, indeed we have that trivially



$$lim_substack(x,y)to(0,0)\quad :xneq yx^2+y^2=0=f(0,0)$$



therefore by definition $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer














For the continuity at $(0,0)$ it doesn't mind if $f(x,y)$ is not defined for $x=yneq 0$, indeed we have that trivially



$$lim_substack(x,y)to(0,0)\quad :xneq yx^2+y^2=0=f(0,0)$$



therefore by definition $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 2 at 10:00

























answered Sep 2 at 9:12









gimusi

72.2k73888




72.2k73888







  • 1




    How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:20










  • @DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:21










  • I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:24










  • @DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:39










  • The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:52












  • 1




    How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:20










  • @DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:21










  • I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:24










  • @DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
    – gimusi
    Sep 2 at 9:39










  • The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
    – Daniel Littlewood
    Sep 2 at 9:52







1




1




How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:20




How can you take the limit to $(0,0)$ if the function isn't defined on a neighbourhood of $0$?
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:20












@DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
– gimusi
Sep 2 at 9:21




@DanielLittlewood Just take the path $x=t$ and $y=-t$ for example.
– gimusi
Sep 2 at 9:21












I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:24




I think you are using a non-standard definition of continuity in $mathbbR^2$. c.f. (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…)
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:24












@DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
– gimusi
Sep 2 at 9:39




@DanielLittlewood Of course we are referring to different definition but I'm not sure that mine is the "non-standard" one. If f(x,y) is not defined for $x=yneq 0$ it doesn't mind since we are removing those points from the domain. The case seems similar to this OP math.stackexchange.com/questions/2889055/…
– gimusi
Sep 2 at 9:39












The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:52




The various definitions given in the answer you link are satisfactory, and establish that the limit equals $0$ (which is true), although I suspect that the OP may have been given a definition which assumes that the domain of $f$ should be a nbhd of $(0,0)$, which would explain the confusion. My serious objection is with your comment: continuity along a path does not imply continuity of the function!
– Daniel Littlewood
Sep 2 at 9:52

















 

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