Every closed set in $mathbb R^2$ is boundary of some other subset

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A problem is bugging me many years after I first met it:
Prove that any closed subset of $mathbbR^2$ is the boundary of some set in $mathbbR^2$.
I have toyed with this problem several times over the last 20 years, but I have never managed to either prove it, or conversely prove that the question as posed is in some way wrong.
I can't remember which book I found the question in originally (but I am pretty sure that is exactly the question as it appeared in the book).
Any help, with either the topology or the source would be gratefully received!
general-topology
add a comment |Â
up vote
14
down vote
favorite
A problem is bugging me many years after I first met it:
Prove that any closed subset of $mathbbR^2$ is the boundary of some set in $mathbbR^2$.
I have toyed with this problem several times over the last 20 years, but I have never managed to either prove it, or conversely prove that the question as posed is in some way wrong.
I can't remember which book I found the question in originally (but I am pretty sure that is exactly the question as it appeared in the book).
Any help, with either the topology or the source would be gratefully received!
general-topology
Does "frontier" mean boundary?
â Chris Eagle
May 29 '12 at 19:14
Yes, I am sure the book used "frontier" to mean "boundary".
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:19
add a comment |Â
up vote
14
down vote
favorite
up vote
14
down vote
favorite
A problem is bugging me many years after I first met it:
Prove that any closed subset of $mathbbR^2$ is the boundary of some set in $mathbbR^2$.
I have toyed with this problem several times over the last 20 years, but I have never managed to either prove it, or conversely prove that the question as posed is in some way wrong.
I can't remember which book I found the question in originally (but I am pretty sure that is exactly the question as it appeared in the book).
Any help, with either the topology or the source would be gratefully received!
general-topology
A problem is bugging me many years after I first met it:
Prove that any closed subset of $mathbbR^2$ is the boundary of some set in $mathbbR^2$.
I have toyed with this problem several times over the last 20 years, but I have never managed to either prove it, or conversely prove that the question as posed is in some way wrong.
I can't remember which book I found the question in originally (but I am pretty sure that is exactly the question as it appeared in the book).
Any help, with either the topology or the source would be gratefully received!
general-topology
general-topology
edited Sep 8 at 20:19
user99914
asked May 29 '12 at 19:10
Old John
17.5k34898
17.5k34898
Does "frontier" mean boundary?
â Chris Eagle
May 29 '12 at 19:14
Yes, I am sure the book used "frontier" to mean "boundary".
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:19
add a comment |Â
Does "frontier" mean boundary?
â Chris Eagle
May 29 '12 at 19:14
Yes, I am sure the book used "frontier" to mean "boundary".
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:19
Does "frontier" mean boundary?
â Chris Eagle
May 29 '12 at 19:14
Does "frontier" mean boundary?
â Chris Eagle
May 29 '12 at 19:14
Yes, I am sure the book used "frontier" to mean "boundary".
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:19
Yes, I am sure the book used "frontier" to mean "boundary".
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:19
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
9
down vote
accepted
There is an very elementary way to solve this, that is also much more widely applicable.
Let $Y$ be a topological space that can be partitioned into dense subsets $D$ and $E$. If $X subset Y$ is closed, then there is a $V subset X$ such that $operatornameFr V = X$.
Take $V = X setminus (D cap operatornameInt X)$. Then since $V subset X$ we have $operatornameCl V subset operatornameCl X$, and $operatornameFr X subset V$ and $E cap operatornameInt X$ dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameCl V = X$. On the other hand $Y setminus X$ is dense in $Y setminus operatornameInt X$ and $D cap operatornameInt X$ is dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameInt V = emptyset$. It follows that $ operatornameFr V = X$.
Some additional information:
The question probably came from Willard's General topology, problem 3 B.
As Henno Brandsma pointed out in a comment, a space that can be partitioned into
two dense subsets is called resolvable. For some examples of irresolvable spaces, see the answer to "Is a perfect set a boundary?".
A somewhat stronger result can be found in "Any two disjoint open sets are the interior and exterior of some set".
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
1
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
15
down vote
Any subspace of $mathbbR^2$ is second countable, and hence separable. So if $X$ is your closed subspace, then let $A$ be a countable subset of $X$ that is dense in $X$. Then the closure of $A$ (in $mathbbR^2$) is $X$, while the interior of $A$ is empty (since any nontrivial open set in $mathbbR^2$ is uncountable). Thus $X$ is the boundary of $A$.
1
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
9
down vote
accepted
There is an very elementary way to solve this, that is also much more widely applicable.
Let $Y$ be a topological space that can be partitioned into dense subsets $D$ and $E$. If $X subset Y$ is closed, then there is a $V subset X$ such that $operatornameFr V = X$.
Take $V = X setminus (D cap operatornameInt X)$. Then since $V subset X$ we have $operatornameCl V subset operatornameCl X$, and $operatornameFr X subset V$ and $E cap operatornameInt X$ dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameCl V = X$. On the other hand $Y setminus X$ is dense in $Y setminus operatornameInt X$ and $D cap operatornameInt X$ is dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameInt V = emptyset$. It follows that $ operatornameFr V = X$.
Some additional information:
The question probably came from Willard's General topology, problem 3 B.
As Henno Brandsma pointed out in a comment, a space that can be partitioned into
two dense subsets is called resolvable. For some examples of irresolvable spaces, see the answer to "Is a perfect set a boundary?".
A somewhat stronger result can be found in "Any two disjoint open sets are the interior and exterior of some set".
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
1
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
9
down vote
accepted
There is an very elementary way to solve this, that is also much more widely applicable.
Let $Y$ be a topological space that can be partitioned into dense subsets $D$ and $E$. If $X subset Y$ is closed, then there is a $V subset X$ such that $operatornameFr V = X$.
Take $V = X setminus (D cap operatornameInt X)$. Then since $V subset X$ we have $operatornameCl V subset operatornameCl X$, and $operatornameFr X subset V$ and $E cap operatornameInt X$ dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameCl V = X$. On the other hand $Y setminus X$ is dense in $Y setminus operatornameInt X$ and $D cap operatornameInt X$ is dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameInt V = emptyset$. It follows that $ operatornameFr V = X$.
Some additional information:
The question probably came from Willard's General topology, problem 3 B.
As Henno Brandsma pointed out in a comment, a space that can be partitioned into
two dense subsets is called resolvable. For some examples of irresolvable spaces, see the answer to "Is a perfect set a boundary?".
A somewhat stronger result can be found in "Any two disjoint open sets are the interior and exterior of some set".
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
1
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
9
down vote
accepted
up vote
9
down vote
accepted
There is an very elementary way to solve this, that is also much more widely applicable.
Let $Y$ be a topological space that can be partitioned into dense subsets $D$ and $E$. If $X subset Y$ is closed, then there is a $V subset X$ such that $operatornameFr V = X$.
Take $V = X setminus (D cap operatornameInt X)$. Then since $V subset X$ we have $operatornameCl V subset operatornameCl X$, and $operatornameFr X subset V$ and $E cap operatornameInt X$ dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameCl V = X$. On the other hand $Y setminus X$ is dense in $Y setminus operatornameInt X$ and $D cap operatornameInt X$ is dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameInt V = emptyset$. It follows that $ operatornameFr V = X$.
Some additional information:
The question probably came from Willard's General topology, problem 3 B.
As Henno Brandsma pointed out in a comment, a space that can be partitioned into
two dense subsets is called resolvable. For some examples of irresolvable spaces, see the answer to "Is a perfect set a boundary?".
A somewhat stronger result can be found in "Any two disjoint open sets are the interior and exterior of some set".
There is an very elementary way to solve this, that is also much more widely applicable.
Let $Y$ be a topological space that can be partitioned into dense subsets $D$ and $E$. If $X subset Y$ is closed, then there is a $V subset X$ such that $operatornameFr V = X$.
Take $V = X setminus (D cap operatornameInt X)$. Then since $V subset X$ we have $operatornameCl V subset operatornameCl X$, and $operatornameFr X subset V$ and $E cap operatornameInt X$ dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameCl V = X$. On the other hand $Y setminus X$ is dense in $Y setminus operatornameInt X$ and $D cap operatornameInt X$ is dense in $operatornameInt X$, therefore $operatornameInt V = emptyset$. It follows that $ operatornameFr V = X$.
Some additional information:
The question probably came from Willard's General topology, problem 3 B.
As Henno Brandsma pointed out in a comment, a space that can be partitioned into
two dense subsets is called resolvable. For some examples of irresolvable spaces, see the answer to "Is a perfect set a boundary?".
A somewhat stronger result can be found in "Any two disjoint open sets are the interior and exterior of some set".
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21
Communityâ¦
1
1
answered May 31 '12 at 1:22
Niels J. Diepeveen
5,7541830
5,7541830
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
1
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
add a comment |Â
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
1
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
Another way to phrase your result is that in a topological space $Y$, "every closed set is a boundary" is equivalent to "$Y$ is a boundary".
â Chris Eagle
May 31 '12 at 4:17
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
@Chris Eagle: That is a very nice way to put it. In fact it can be proved along the same lines that a closed subset of any boundary is also a boundary.
â Niels J. Diepeveen
Jun 1 '12 at 1:30
1
1
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
Such a space $Y$ is called resolvable. Just FYI.
â Henno Brandsma
May 4 '14 at 11:43
add a comment |Â
up vote
15
down vote
Any subspace of $mathbbR^2$ is second countable, and hence separable. So if $X$ is your closed subspace, then let $A$ be a countable subset of $X$ that is dense in $X$. Then the closure of $A$ (in $mathbbR^2$) is $X$, while the interior of $A$ is empty (since any nontrivial open set in $mathbbR^2$ is uncountable). Thus $X$ is the boundary of $A$.
1
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
add a comment |Â
up vote
15
down vote
Any subspace of $mathbbR^2$ is second countable, and hence separable. So if $X$ is your closed subspace, then let $A$ be a countable subset of $X$ that is dense in $X$. Then the closure of $A$ (in $mathbbR^2$) is $X$, while the interior of $A$ is empty (since any nontrivial open set in $mathbbR^2$ is uncountable). Thus $X$ is the boundary of $A$.
1
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
add a comment |Â
up vote
15
down vote
up vote
15
down vote
Any subspace of $mathbbR^2$ is second countable, and hence separable. So if $X$ is your closed subspace, then let $A$ be a countable subset of $X$ that is dense in $X$. Then the closure of $A$ (in $mathbbR^2$) is $X$, while the interior of $A$ is empty (since any nontrivial open set in $mathbbR^2$ is uncountable). Thus $X$ is the boundary of $A$.
Any subspace of $mathbbR^2$ is second countable, and hence separable. So if $X$ is your closed subspace, then let $A$ be a countable subset of $X$ that is dense in $X$. Then the closure of $A$ (in $mathbbR^2$) is $X$, while the interior of $A$ is empty (since any nontrivial open set in $mathbbR^2$ is uncountable). Thus $X$ is the boundary of $A$.
answered May 29 '12 at 19:21
Chris Eagle
28.6k26694
28.6k26694
1
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
add a comment |Â
1
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
1
1
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
That would seem to do it - many thanks. I think I was somewhat blinded by the fact that the problem appeared in one of the first chapters of the book, well before concepts such as second countable had been introduced.
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:26
add a comment |Â
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Does "frontier" mean boundary?
â Chris Eagle
May 29 '12 at 19:14
Yes, I am sure the book used "frontier" to mean "boundary".
â Old John
May 29 '12 at 19:19