What is the relation between 'the order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n)$' and Lagrange's Theorem?
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Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).
Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)
I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).
Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?
(*) Prop 2.4.3
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.
- $x^k = x^r$.
- $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.
- Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.
abstract-algebra group-theory elementary-number-theory alternative-proof cyclic-groups
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Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).
Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)
I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).
Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?
(*) Prop 2.4.3
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.
- $x^k = x^r$.
- $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.
- Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.
abstract-algebra group-theory elementary-number-theory alternative-proof cyclic-groups
1
How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
â Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32
@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
â BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44
1
That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
â Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05
2
Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19
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Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).
Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)
I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).
Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?
(*) Prop 2.4.3
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.
- $x^k = x^r$.
- $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.
- Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.
abstract-algebra group-theory elementary-number-theory alternative-proof cyclic-groups
Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).
Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)
I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).
Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?
(*) Prop 2.4.3
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.
- $x^k = x^r$.
- $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.
- Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.
abstract-algebra group-theory elementary-number-theory alternative-proof cyclic-groups
abstract-algebra group-theory elementary-number-theory alternative-proof cyclic-groups
edited Sep 8 at 8:46
asked Aug 31 at 17:04
BCLC
1
1
1
How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
â Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32
@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
â BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44
1
That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
â Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05
2
Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1
How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
â Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32
@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
â BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44
1
That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
â Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05
2
Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19
1
1
How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
â Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32
How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
â Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32
@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
â BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44
@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
â BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44
1
1
That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
â Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05
That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
â Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05
2
2
Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38
Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38
1
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19
@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19
 |Â
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To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.
Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:
$$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.
Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:
$(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.
Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
$$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.
The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
$$langle x^kranglele G$$
Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.
Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.
Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
$$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.
Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:
Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.
Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.
We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.
But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
$$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
$$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.
Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
beginalign*
langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
&=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
endalign*
To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
$$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.
Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.
So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.
To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.
We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point
Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$
so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.
1
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
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Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
$(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
$$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.
Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)
The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.
Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
$$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
are all distinct from each other.
Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
$$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$
Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.
Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
$$langle y^cranglecong G$$
Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.
1
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
1
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
1
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
1
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
1
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.
Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
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I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.
Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$
Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1
Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
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These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.
We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)
To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.
To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
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Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
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I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
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@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
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To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.
Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:
$$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.
Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:
$(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.
Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
$$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.
The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
$$langle x^kranglele G$$
Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.
Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.
Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
$$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.
Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:
Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.
Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.
We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.
But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
$$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
$$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.
Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
beginalign*
langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
&=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
endalign*
To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
$$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.
Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.
So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.
To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.
We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point
Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$
so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.
1
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
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To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.
Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:
$$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.
Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:
$(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.
Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
$$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.
The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
$$langle x^kranglele G$$
Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.
Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.
Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
$$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.
Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:
Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.
Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.
We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.
But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
$$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
$$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.
Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
beginalign*
langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
&=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
endalign*
To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
$$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.
Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.
So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.
To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.
We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point
Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$
so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.
1
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
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accepted
To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.
Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:
$$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.
Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:
$(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.
Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
$$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.
The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
$$langle x^kranglele G$$
Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.
Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.
Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
$$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.
Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:
Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.
Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.
We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.
But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
$$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
$$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.
Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
beginalign*
langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
&=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
endalign*
To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
$$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.
Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.
So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.
To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.
We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point
Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$
so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.
To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.
Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:
$$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.
Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:
Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:
$(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.
Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
$$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.
The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
$$langle x^kranglele G$$
Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.
Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.
Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
$$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.
Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:
Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.
Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.
We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.
But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
$$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
$$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.
Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
beginalign*
langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
&=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
endalign*
To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
$$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.
Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.
So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.
To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.
We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point
Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$
so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.
edited Sep 9 at 18:28
answered Sep 9 at 17:14
Daniel Buck
2,6451625
2,6451625
1
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
add a comment |Â
1
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
1
1
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
â BCLC
Sep 11 at 1:56
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
@BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 11 at 11:25
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
$(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
$$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.
Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)
The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.
Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
$$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
are all distinct from each other.
Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
$$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$
Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.
Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
$$langle y^cranglecong G$$
Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.
1
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
1
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
1
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
1
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
1
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
 |Â
show 7 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
$(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
$$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.
Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)
The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.
Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
$$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
are all distinct from each other.
Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
$$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$
Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.
Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
$$langle y^cranglecong G$$
Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.
1
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
1
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
1
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
1
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
1
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
 |Â
show 7 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
$(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
$$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.
Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)
The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.
Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
$$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
are all distinct from each other.
Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
$$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$
Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.
Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
$$langle y^cranglecong G$$
Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)
$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$
$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$
$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$
$(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$
Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
$$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.
Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)
The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.
Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
$$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
are all distinct from each other.
Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
$$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$
Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.
Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
$$langle y^cranglecong G$$
Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.
edited Sep 9 at 17:15
answered Sep 1 at 15:05
Daniel Buck
2,6451625
2,6451625
1
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
1
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
1
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
1
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
1
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
 |Â
show 7 more comments
1
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
1
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
1
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
1
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
1
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
1
1
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
@BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:02
1
1
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:15
1
1
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
@BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:29
1
1
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
@BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
â Daniel Buck
Sep 2 at 17:56
1
1
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
â BCLC
Sep 2 at 17:59
 |Â
show 7 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.
Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
1
I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.
Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
1
I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.
Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.
Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
edited Sep 1 at 13:29
answered Sep 1 at 12:18
BCLC
1
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1
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
1
I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
add a comment |Â
1
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
1
I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
1
1
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:17
1
1
I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:19
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.
Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$
Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1
Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.
Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$
Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1
Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.
Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$
Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1
Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.
Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$
Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1
Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.
Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
edited Sep 1 at 13:30
answered Sep 1 at 13:19
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
1
These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
1
These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.
Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.
Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.
Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.
Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED
edited Sep 1 at 13:30
answered Sep 1 at 13:17
BCLC
1
1
1
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
1
These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
add a comment |Â
1
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
1
These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
1
1
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:35
1
1
These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 10 at 0:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.
We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)
To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.
To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
1
I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
 |Â
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.
We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)
To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.
To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
1
Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
1
I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
 |Â
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
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up vote
0
down vote
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.
We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)
To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.
To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.
Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.
By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.
We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)
To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.
To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.
Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED
edited Sep 1 at 13:31
answered Sep 1 at 12:22
BCLC
1
1
1
Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
1
I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
 |Â
show 2 more comments
1
Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
1
I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
1
1
Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:20
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
@DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 13:23
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 13:27
1
1
I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 14:18
1
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
@DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 15:22
 |Â
show 2 more comments
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1
How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
â Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32
@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
â BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44
1
That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
â Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05
2
Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
â Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38
1
@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
â BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19