What is the relation between 'the order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n)$' and Lagrange's Theorem?

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Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).




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Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)



  • I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).


  • Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?



(*) Prop 2.4.3




Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.



  • $x^k = x^r$.

  • $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.

  • Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
    The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.










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  • 1




    How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
    – Stefan4024
    Aug 31 at 17:32










  • @Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
    – BCLC
    Aug 31 at 17:44







  • 1




    That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
    – Daniel Buck
    Aug 31 at 22:05






  • 2




    Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 1 at 9:38






  • 1




    @DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
    – BCLC
    Sep 1 at 12:19














up vote
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Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).




enter image description here



enter image description here




Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)



  • I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).


  • Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?



(*) Prop 2.4.3




Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.



  • $x^k = x^r$.

  • $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.

  • Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
    The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
    – Stefan4024
    Aug 31 at 17:32










  • @Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
    – BCLC
    Aug 31 at 17:44







  • 1




    That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
    – Daniel Buck
    Aug 31 at 22:05






  • 2




    Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 1 at 9:38






  • 1




    @DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
    – BCLC
    Sep 1 at 12:19












up vote
5
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Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).




enter image description here



enter image description here




Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)



  • I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).


  • Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?



(*) Prop 2.4.3




Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.



  • $x^k = x^r$.

  • $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.

  • Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
    The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.










share|cite|improve this question















Algebra by Michael Artin Cor 2.8.11 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9).




enter image description here



enter image description here




Question: What is the relation between Cor 2.8.11 and the order of $x^k$ given by $n/gcd(k,n)$ (in the text, this is in the 3rd bullet point of Prop 2.4.3)? (*)



  • I was thinking something like $1=gcd(k,p)$ for all $1 le k < p$, so somehow the order of the non-identity elements of a group of prime order would be shown to be $p/gcd(k,p) = p/1 = p$. I think this would be a way to show Cor 2.8.11 without Cor 2.8.10 to Lagrange's Theorem (Theorem 2.8.9), Lagrange's Theorem itself (Theorem 2.8.9) or even the Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8).


  • Or perhaps it's more the converse: that Cor 2.8.11 implies 3rd bullet of Prop 2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime?



(*) Prop 2.4.3




Proposition 2.4.3
Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and let $k$ be an integer that is written as $k = nq + r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers and $r$ is in the range $0 leq r < n$.



  • $x^k = x^r$.

  • $x^k = 1$ if and only if $r = 0$.

  • Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$.
    The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$.







abstract-algebra group-theory elementary-number-theory alternative-proof cyclic-groups






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edited Sep 8 at 8:46

























asked Aug 31 at 17:04









BCLC

1




1







  • 1




    How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
    – Stefan4024
    Aug 31 at 17:32










  • @Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
    – BCLC
    Aug 31 at 17:44







  • 1




    That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
    – Daniel Buck
    Aug 31 at 22:05






  • 2




    Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 1 at 9:38






  • 1




    @DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
    – BCLC
    Sep 1 at 12:19












  • 1




    How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
    – Stefan4024
    Aug 31 at 17:32










  • @Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
    – BCLC
    Aug 31 at 17:44







  • 1




    That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
    – Daniel Buck
    Aug 31 at 22:05






  • 2




    Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 1 at 9:38






  • 1




    @DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
    – BCLC
    Sep 1 at 12:19







1




1




How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
– Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32




How do you known that $ord(x) = p$, without invoking the Lagrange's Theorem?
– Stefan4024
Aug 31 at 17:32












@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
– BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44





@Stefan4024 That's my question precisely right? I was thinking to somehow use $n/gcd(k,n)$ with $n=p$. I just don't know what $k$ would be here. Like somehow we might show that the orders of the non-identity elements are given by $p/gcd(k,p)$, which of course simplifies to $p$.
– BCLC
Aug 31 at 17:44





1




1




That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
– Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05




That's the problem, prop.2.4.3 states: "Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$", we all know this is going to be $p$, and that $x^k$ where $k=pq+r$ is going to have order $p$ by having to repeatedly add $r$, a $p$ amount of times on composition. But how to know all this without Lagrange, that $n>1$ has to divide $p$ and so is $p$?
– Daniel Buck
Aug 31 at 22:05




2




2




Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
– Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38




Everything after prop.2.4.3 sets up group theory: homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence and partitions, until we get to cosets after which the Counting formula delivers Lagrange. We already know about cyclic groups $<x>$ before prop.2.4.3, so in fact a fourth bullet point there could have easily allowed the special case when the $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $p$ prime, thus implying the order of the cyclic group formed by all nonidentity elements is $p$. From here you can deduce the order of the main group, as it contains $p-1$ elements generating it! Hence you could state cor.2.8.11 here, why not?
– Daniel Buck
Sep 1 at 9:38




1




1




@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
– BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19




@DanielBuck Thanks! Posted answer/s. May you please check?
– BCLC
Sep 1 at 12:19










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To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.



Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:

$$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.



Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:



Proposition 2.4.3



Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now



$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:




$(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.



Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
$$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.



The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
$$langle x^kranglele G$$



Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.



Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.



Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
$$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.



Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:



Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.



Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.



We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.



But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
$$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
$$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.



Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
beginalign*
langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
&=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
endalign*



To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
$$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.



Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.



So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.




To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.



We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point




Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$




so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.






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  • 1




    Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
    – BCLC
    Sep 11 at 1:56










  • @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 11 at 11:25

















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Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)



$(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



$(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



$(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



$(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
$$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.



Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)



The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.



Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
$$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
are all distinct from each other.



Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
$$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$



Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.



Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
$$langle y^cranglecong G$$
Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:02







  • 1




    Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
    – BCLC
    Sep 2 at 17:15







  • 1




    @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:29






  • 1




    @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:56






  • 1




    I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
    – BCLC
    Sep 2 at 17:59

















up vote
1
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Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.



Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)



Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






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  • 1




    Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 10 at 0:17






  • 1




    I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 10 at 0:19


















up vote
1
down vote













Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.



Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$



Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1



Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



    Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



    Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



    Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



    Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



    Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.



    Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






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    • 1




      Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:35






    • 1




      These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:36

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.



    We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)



    • To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.


    • To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.


    Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






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    • 1




      Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 1 at 13:20










    • @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
      – BCLC
      Sep 1 at 13:23











    • This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 1 at 13:27






    • 1




      I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 1 at 14:18






    • 1




      @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
      – BCLC
      Sep 1 at 15:22










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    To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.



    Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:

    $$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
    We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.



    Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:



    Proposition 2.4.3



    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:




    $(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.



    Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
    $$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.



    The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
    $$langle x^kranglele G$$



    Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.



    Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.



    Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
    $$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
    So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.



    Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:



    Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.



    Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.



    We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.



    But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
    $$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
    Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
    $$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
    All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.



    Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
    beginalign*
    langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
    &=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
    endalign*



    To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
    $$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
    cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.



    Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.



    So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.




    To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.



    We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point




    Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$




    so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
      – BCLC
      Sep 11 at 1:56










    • @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 11 at 11:25














    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted
    +100










    To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.



    Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:

    $$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
    We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.



    Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:



    Proposition 2.4.3



    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:




    $(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.



    Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
    $$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.



    The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
    $$langle x^kranglele G$$



    Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.



    Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.



    Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
    $$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
    So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.



    Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:



    Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.



    Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.



    We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.



    But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
    $$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
    Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
    $$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
    All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.



    Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
    beginalign*
    langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
    &=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
    endalign*



    To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
    $$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
    cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.



    Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.



    So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.




    To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.



    We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point




    Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$




    so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
      – BCLC
      Sep 11 at 1:56










    • @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 11 at 11:25












    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted
    +100







    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted
    +100




    +100




    To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.



    Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:

    $$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
    We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.



    Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:



    Proposition 2.4.3



    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:




    $(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.



    Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
    $$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.



    The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
    $$langle x^kranglele G$$



    Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.



    Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.



    Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
    $$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
    So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.



    Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:



    Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.



    Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.



    We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.



    But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
    $$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
    Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
    $$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
    All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.



    Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
    beginalign*
    langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
    &=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
    endalign*



    To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
    $$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
    cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.



    Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.



    So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.




    To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.



    We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point




    Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$




    so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    To answer your question directly w.r.t. the direction Artin takes regarding order and Lagrange.



    Well Prop.2.4.2 sets up cyclic groups, so we know, for some element $x$ in a group $G$, that taking powers of $x$ generates a cyclic subgroup of $G$, and that it is of order $n$:

    $$langle xrangle=1,x,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1le G$$
    We can say no more at this point about the relationship between $|langle xrangle|$ and $|G|$.



    Let $x$ be an element of order $n$. Then the next proposition from Artin gives the recipe for the order of an arbitrary power of $x$, say $x^k$:



    Proposition 2.4.3



    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group $G$, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    Now lets see where we are immediately after Prop.2.4.3. A particular case of $(3)$ of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime is immediate, even though Artin does not explicitly state it here as a corollary. For convenience let us define it as $(3a)$:




    $(3a)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    So let's see what Prop.2.4.3 gets us with this particular case of having $n=p$, i.e., when our element $x$ has the order of a prime $p$.



    Well $(2)$ tells us the only power of $x$ that gives the identity is $x^0=1$, so for the set of powers
    $$X=x^0,x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    we know none of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$ equal $1$.



    The next question is then what of the orders of $x^1$, $x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$? Well $(3)$ tells us this: we know, for $1le kle p-1$, that $gcd(k,p)=1$. This then gives the order of each nonidentity element $x^k$ as $operatornameord(x^k)=p/gcd(k,p)=p/1=p$, and so each of the $p-1$ number of nonidentity elements $x^k$ generate a cyclic subgroup of order $p$,
    $$langle x^kranglele G$$



    Now Prop.2.4.3 does not mention the actual relationship between the order of the group $G$ and the cyclic subgroups of order $p$ formed by the $p-1$ nonidentity elements of order $p$, just that they exist within it.



    Upto this point Artin has not mentioned homomorphisms, isomorphisms, equivalence relations or partitions.



    Now in section 2.2 Artin defines the order of a group $G$ as
    $$|G|=text the number of elements $G$ contains.$$
    So for us $|G|=p$. Again Artin has not mentioned isomorphisms by Prop.2.4.3 so we can't talk of isomorphism classes, but again that is not what is needed for Corollary 2.8.11.



    Now we must ask: can Corollary 2.8.11 be a corollary to Prop.2.4.3? Let's look at it:



    Corollary 2.8.11 Suppose that $G$ has prime order $p$. Let $aneq1$. Then $G$ is the cyclic group $langle arangle$ generated by $a$.



    Artin proves this by Lagrange; he states if $aneq1$, then, by Lagrange, its order divides $|G|=p$ and so must be of order $p$ itself, since $p$ is prime, and so its cyclic subgroup generates $G$. QED.



    We are coming from the other angle using what we know from Prop.2.4.3. Well we know about order, this means the number of elements in a group. We are told $G$ has order $p$, so now the question is: if $G$ has order $p$ does this mean that every nonidentity element $a$ in $G$ also has order $p$, which would then imply, without mentioning isomorphism as such, that $langle arangle=G$? Remember Prop.2.4.3 only works if we know the order of the element in question, and thus far this could be anything in relation to $G$. We can't use division as Artin does as this uses Lagrange.



    But what we do know is all about cyclic groups. So now we work backwards. Consider $G$, it has $p$ elements,
    $$G=a_1,a_2,dotsc,a_p$$
    Now let $a_1=1$, which, since $G$ is a group, the identity is unique and so no other elements are $1$. So what of the $p-1$ elements $a_2,dotsc,a_p$? We know, by Section 2.4, that each element forms a cyclic subgroup of $G$ with order equal to the smallest integer s.t. $a_i^n=1$. So take some arbitrary nonidentity element $x$ in $G$ and consider its order $n$, with the powers of $x$ given in the set,
    $$X=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n-1,x^n=1$$
    All we can say at the moment is that $nleq p$. If we can deduce $n=p$ then from Prop.2.4.3 it quickly follows all nonidentity elements $a$ have order $p$, since $a$ was an arbitrary nonidentity element, and this in turn implies $langle arangle=G$ since both have $p$ distinct elements, easy enough to set up a bijection here.



    Now Prop.2.4.3 $(1)$ states $x^k=x^r$. So let $k=nq+r$, which by virtue of the cyclic group regenerating itself cyclically, we can take $q=0$, $1$, $2,dotsc$, etc., to give $k=r$, $k=n+r$, $k=2n+r,dotsc$, and so on. This generates sets of powers, each of size $n$ thus:
    beginalign*
    langle xrangle&=x^1,x^2,dotsc,x^n=1=x^n+1,x^n+2,dotsc,x^2n=1\
    &=x^2n+1,x^2n+2,dotsc,x^3n=1 =dotsx^(j-1)n+1,x^(j-1)n+2,dotsc,x^jn=1=dotstag1
    endalign*



    To complete the proof we look at the order of $G$ in relation to the order of the cyclic group and the repeating sets in $(1)$. Since there are $p$ elements in $G$ take an arbitrary nonidentity element $y$, then we know $y^0=y^p=1$, since $0equiv ppmodp$, that is the powers in the set
    $$Y=y^1,y^2,dotsc,y^p-1,y^p=y^0=1$$
    cycle after every $p$th power is taken. Now the powers in $Y$ need not be distinct, so let us look at the sets in $(1)$ and assume that $n<p$. Then say it takes $j$ sets of $n$ elements to cycle through $p$ amount of elements: Note these sets only cycle through the $n$ elements in the subgroup $langle xrangle$ repeatedly, and not the whole of $G$, since we have assumed $n<p$. This means $jn=p$. If not, then we should have $x^pneq1$, which implies $x^0=x^k$ for some $1leq k< n$. But this contradicts the uniqueness of the identity, so $jn=p$ has to have $n=p$, $j=1$ and $langle xrangle=G$.



    Therefore technically Prop.2.4.3 $(3a)$ only works if we know the order of a nonidentity element is $p$, but what we have to do first is consider the structure of the cyclic group itself, since we cannot assume that just because a group $G$ has order $p$ that any element in it actually has order $p$.



    So to finish Prop.2.4.3 isn't enough on its own to imply Cor.2.11.8. Something like I have said above has to be explained first, and only then can we have Cor.2.11.8 as an actual corollary to Prop.2.4.3.




    To quickly address the converse: whether Cor.2.8.11 implies $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 in the case that $n$ is prime. Cor.2.8.11 tells us every element $xneq1$ of a group of order $p$ also has order $p$, and so they all generate $G$. We already know the order of $x^k$, for $kne p$, is equal to $p$ from Cor.2.11.8, and that this satisfies a particular case of the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3.



    We can certainly note $gcd(k,p)=1$, for $kne p$, and that the order of $x^k$ is $p$ by Cor.2.11.8, since these are precisely the nonidentity elements mentioned in Cor.2.11.8. So we can write the $3$rd bullet point in the case $|G|=p$, in the form $p/gcd(k,p)=p$, but it doesn't imply, on its own, the actual $3$rd bullet point




    Let $d$ be the greatest common divisor of $k$ and $n$. The order of $x^k$ is equal to $n/d$




    so it would be more like just an observation at this stage.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Sep 9 at 18:28

























    answered Sep 9 at 17:14









    Daniel Buck

    2,6451625




    2,6451625







    • 1




      Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
      – BCLC
      Sep 11 at 1:56










    • @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 11 at 11:25












    • 1




      Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
      – BCLC
      Sep 11 at 1:56










    • @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 11 at 11:25







    1




    1




    Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
    – BCLC
    Sep 11 at 1:56




    Thanks Daniel Buck! I'll analyse this and the others later.
    – BCLC
    Sep 11 at 1:56












    @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 11 at 11:25




    @BCLC No problem. Cheers for the bonus and the workout ;)
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 11 at 11:25










    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    $(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
    $$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
    These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.



    Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)



    The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.



    Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
    $$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    are all distinct from each other.



    Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
    $$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$



    Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.



    Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
    $$langle y^cranglecong G$$
    Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:02







    • 1




      Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:15







    • 1




      @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:29






    • 1




      @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:56






    • 1




      I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:59














    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    $(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
    $$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
    These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.



    Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)



    The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.



    Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
    $$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    are all distinct from each other.



    Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
    $$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$



    Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.



    Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
    $$langle y^cranglecong G$$
    Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:02







    • 1




      Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:15







    • 1




      @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:29






    • 1




      @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:56






    • 1




      I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:59












    up vote
    2
    down vote










    up vote
    2
    down vote









    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    $(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
    $$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
    These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.



    Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)



    The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.



    Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
    $$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    are all distinct from each other.



    Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
    $$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$



    Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.



    Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
    $$langle y^cranglecong G$$
    Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Let $x$ be an element of finite order $n$ in a group, and $k,q,rinmathbbZ$ s.t. $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Now Prop.2.4.3 from Artin gives, (with $(4)$ added on)



    $(1)$ $x^k=x^r$



    $(2)$ $x^k=1$ iff $r=0$



    $(3)$ Let $d=gcd(k,n)$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=n/d$



    $(4)$ Let $n=p$ be a prime. Then for $k=pq+r$, $1le r<p$, $gcd(k,p)=1$. Then $operatornameord(x^k)=p/1=p$




    Let $G$ be a group containing $p$ elements, where $p$ is a prime. Now consider the set
    $$S=0,1,2,dotsc,p-1$$
    These are $p$ numbers that are pairwise incongruent modulo $p$, and so form a complete set of residues modulo $p$. Equivalently each number in $S$ belongs to a different equivalence class, and since there are $p$ of them, with $p$ prime, then if $a$ and $b$ are in $S$ and we have $aequiv bpmodp$ this means $a=b$, i.e. they are both in the same residue class, and so for the rest.



    Now for $a$, $bin S$, we shall use addition of the integers modulo $p$ as our elements. So modulo $5$, $x$ can be one of $0$, $1$, $2$, $3$, $4$. Group composition is given by $+$ with the result taken modulo $p$, so if $x=3$, $x^2=3+3equiv1pmod5$, or in general $x^a=ax=underbracex+dotsb+x_text$a$ times$. Now $aequiv bpmodp$ implies $a=b$. (At this point all we can say is $x^0=x^0$, $x^1=x^1$, $x^2=x^2,dotsc,x^p-1=x^p-1$.)



    The problem now is that we cannot immediately say that if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$. So assume this does hold for some $a$, $bin S$ and derive a contradiction. WLOG, let $0le b<a<p$, where $a-b=cin S$ also with $cneq0$. Let $x$ be a nonidentity element. We can write $x^a$ and $x^b$ as multiples in the congruence thus: $axequiv bxpmodp$, and so $ax-bx=(a-b)xequiv cxequiv0pmodp$. Now $a$, $b$, $cin S$, with only $b$ having the possibility of being zero, since we took $a>b$. But since $xneq0$ we must have $c=0$ and $a=b$, contrary to what was assumed.



    Hence if $anotequiv bpmodp$ then $x^aneq x^b$, and so the powers in the set
    $$X=x^0, x^1, x^2,dotsc,x^p-1$$
    are all distinct from each other.



    Since the number of distinct elements in $G$ is $p$, this gives us $p-1$ nonidentity elements $x_i$ all forming sets of $p$ distinct elements, as in the set $X$, thus,
    $$X_i=x_i^0,x_i^1,x_i^2,dotsc,x_i^p-1,quad 1le ile p-1$$



    Let $y$ be some nonidentity element of $G$. Consider the cyclic subgroup $langle y^crangle$, where $c$ is some number in the range $0<cle p-1$. The multiples of $c$ are taken modulo $p$ to ensure a bijection with $S$, which then implies the set of elements thus formed in $langle y^crangle$ can be put into a bijection with $X$.



    Hence $langle y^crangle$ and the whole group $G$ exhaust all elements and we have
    $$langle y^cranglecong G$$
    Hence we have $p-1$ cyclic subgroups, $langle y^crangle$, generating $G$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Sep 9 at 17:15

























    answered Sep 1 at 15:05









    Daniel Buck

    2,6451625




    2,6451625







    • 1




      @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:02







    • 1




      Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:15







    • 1




      @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:29






    • 1




      @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:56






    • 1




      I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:59












    • 1




      @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:02







    • 1




      Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:15







    • 1




      @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:29






    • 1




      @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 2 at 17:56






    • 1




      I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
      – BCLC
      Sep 2 at 17:59







    1




    1




    @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:02





    @BCLC You use the fact that if two numbers from $S$ are congruent modulo $p$, then they are equal. This justifies distinctness. Next you know the order of each nonidentity element by $(4)$ to be $p$. Here is where the order being $p$ of all $p-1$ nonidentity elements, and having $p$ distinct elements in $G$ meets to finish the theorem, by showing if $|G|=p$, then $G$ is isomorphic to some cyclic group $langle x^crangle$.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:02





    1




    1




    Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
    – BCLC
    Sep 2 at 17:15





    Daniel Buck, right, I think your answer is 'yes, I was able to prove without using order of $x$', but you're just too humble to say it outright. For clarity, may you please just explicitly state whether or not your proof is in fact not using order of $x$?
    – BCLC
    Sep 2 at 17:15





    1




    1




    @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:29




    @BCLC Haha.. We get the set of powers of a nonidentity element, $x$, as being distinct without explicitly using the order of $x$, but merely on congruence relations and the implied group composition. I guess from there you could just say there are $p$ distinct elements in $G$ and go straight for the isomorphism, thereby removing explicit use of the order of the elements. The order of an element then follows from this reasoning to have to be $p$.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:29




    1




    1




    @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:56




    @BCLC I've slightly changed the end so it has no mention of order. I've left the first bit as $(4)$ implys things explicitly using order if you like, and here Artin could definitely have shown the isomorphism between a group of order $p$ and an element of order $p$. Cheers ;)
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 2 at 17:56




    1




    1




    I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
    – BCLC
    Sep 2 at 17:59




    I meant that it seemed that while you relied on order of $x^textsomething not 1$, you did not rely on order of $x$. Now, it seems you don't rely on orders at all. Brilliant!
    – BCLC
    Sep 2 at 17:59










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.



    Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)



    Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:17






    • 1




      I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:19















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.



    Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)



    Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 1




      Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:17






    • 1




      I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:19













    up vote
    1
    down vote










    up vote
    1
    down vote









    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.



    Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)



    Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime. Therefore, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$, including $x^1$.



    Since $x^1=x$ has order $p$, the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity. (Alternatively, we can argue using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3.)



    Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Sep 1 at 13:29

























    answered Sep 1 at 12:18









    BCLC

    1




    1







    • 1




      Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:17






    • 1




      I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:19













    • 1




      Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:17






    • 1




      I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
      – Daniel Buck
      Sep 10 at 0:19








    1




    1




    Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 10 at 0:17




    Where you have stated in the $2$nd paragraph: "By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$.." you have assumed $x$ has order $p$ because $G$ has. This you cannot do, you have to prove it somehow. If $|x|=p$ then everything else follows as stated. The difficulty lies in directly using $|x|=p$ from letting $n=p$ in the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3. We have to start off letting the order of an arbitrary nonidentity element be $n$, which is not necessarily $p$, so $k=nq+r$ and not $k=pq+r$. Check the following theorems which are a bit like Prop.2.4.3 in that they deal with order.
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 10 at 0:17




    1




    1




    I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 10 at 0:19





    I tried using these but again you cannot just change $n$ to $p$: Theorem Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^k=1$ iff $nmid k$. Proof: Let $k=mn$. Then $x^k=x^nm=(x^n)^m=1^m=1$. Conversely use the division theorem. Let $k=nq+r$, $0le r<n$. Then if $x^k=1$ we must have $x^nq+r=(x^n)^qx^r=1^qx^r=x^r=1$, implying $r=0$, so $k=nq$ and $nmid k$. QED. Corollary Let $xin G$ have order $n$. Then $x^a=x^b$ iff $aequiv bpmodn$. Proof: If $x^a=x^b$ then $x^a-b=1$. Now use the last theorem with the fact that $aequiv bpmodn$ implies $nmid (a-b)$. QED
    – Daniel Buck
    Sep 10 at 0:19











    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



    Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



    Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



    Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



    By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



    Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



    Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



    Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.



    Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



    Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$



    Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1



    Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



    Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



    Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



      Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



      By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



      Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



      Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



      By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



      Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



      Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



      Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.



      Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



      Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$



      Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1



      Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



      Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



      Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



        Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



        By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



        Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



        Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



        By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



        Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



        Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



        Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.



        Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



        Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$



        Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1



        Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



        Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



        Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



        Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



        By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



        Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



        Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



        By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



        Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



        Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



        Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers. $p=nfracq_nq_p$. By Euclid's lemma, we have that either $n$ or $q_n$ is a multiple of $p$.



        Case 2.1: $q_n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



        Then $$gcd(p,n)=gcd(nfracq_nq_p,n)=ngcd(fracq_nq_p,1)=n(1)=n$$



        Thus, $p$ is a multiple of $n$, so $n=1$ because $p$ is prime. That $n=1$ contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$ vacuously in Case 2.1



        Case 2.2: $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$.



        Define $n=:q_prho$ for $rho in mathbb Z$. Then $k=gcd(k,k)=gcd(nq_n,pq_p)=gcd(rho q_p q_n,pq_p)=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p)$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=q_pgcd(rho q_n,q_p) implies p=gcd(rho q_n,q_p)=gcd(fracnq_pq_n,q_p)=gcd(p,q_p)$. Therefore, $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is a multiple of $q_p$ and $q_p$ is a multiple of $p$, $n$ is a multiple of $p$. Since $n$ is an order, $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. Then, $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



        Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Sep 1 at 13:30

























        answered Sep 1 at 13:19









        BCLC

        1




        1




















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 1




              Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:35






            • 1




              These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:36














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 1




              Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:35






            • 1




              These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:36












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq_p+r_p$ where $q_p$ and $r_p$ are integers s.t. $r_p=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r_p,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Now because $p$ is prime and $r_p=0,1,...p-1$, we have that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Next, view $x$ as an element of $langle x rangle$. Observe that $langle x rangle$ is not only a subgroup of $G$ but also a group (this is probably why subgroups are so-called). Thus, $x$ is not identity in $langle x rangle$ because $x$ is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in langle x rangle$, where $k$ is the same integer as above. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=nq_n+r_n$ where $n$ is the order of $x$ (in $G$ or $langle x rangle$) and $q_n$ and $r_n$ are integers s.t. $r_n=0,1,...n-1$. Observe that the order of $x$, which is $n$, cannot exceed the elements of $G$, which is $p$, we must have $n le p$. (Of course we know by Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9) or Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) that $n=p$, but the point is to not use either of those.)



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to $langle x rangle$, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$.



            Therefore, $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$ if $r_p ne 0$ and $1$ if $r_p=0$.



            Case 1: For $r_p ne 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=p$, i.e. $n$ is a positive multiple of $p$. This implies $n ge p$. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Case 2: For $r_p = 0$, we have that $n/gcd(r_n,n)=1$, i.e. $r_n$ is a multiple of $n$. Since $r_n=0,1,...n-1$, $r_n=0$. Therefore, $pq_p=k=nq_n$. Hence, we can write $p$ as a product of 2 integers, each greater than or equal to 1: $p=nfracq_nq_p$, where $fracq_nq_p ge 1$ because $n le p$. Now, since $p$ is prime, we must have $p=n$ or $p=fracq_nq_p$. In the latter case, we will have $n=1$ which contradicts our assumption that $x$ is not identity. Therefore, $n=p$.



            Therefore, in either case, we have deduced $n=p$. We can finally proceed as in here or here to say $G = langle x rangle$. QED







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 1 at 13:30

























            answered Sep 1 at 13:17









            BCLC

            1




            1







            • 1




              Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:35






            • 1




              These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:36












            • 1




              Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:35






            • 1




              These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 10 at 0:36







            1




            1




            Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 10 at 0:35




            Here you start off with the assumption that $k=pq_p+r_p$ in the $2$nd paragraph. Then you state the order of $x^r$ is $p$ if $r_pneq0$ which you cannot yet say. The $5$th paragraph is where to start, because you don't assume the order of $x^k$ is $p$. But then you go on to say $|x^k| = n/gcd(k,n) = n/gcd(r_n,n)$ and that this has to be $p$. But if $nle p$ then this is not evident, and not proved. The problem all the proofs suffer, is that it's tempting to use the $3$rd bullet of Prop.2.4.3 with $n=p$, and also use what we know as self evident as regards dividing into a prime.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 10 at 0:35




            1




            1




            These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 10 at 0:36




            These can be fixed, but see my $2$nd answer, they do not logically flow from Artin's book just at Prop.2.4.3 without a lemma or two.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 10 at 0:36










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.



            We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)



            • To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.


            • To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.


            Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 1




              Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:20










            • @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 13:23











            • This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:27






            • 1




              I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 14:18






            • 1




              @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 15:22














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.



            We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)



            • To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.


            • To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.


            Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 1




              Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:20










            • @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 13:23











            • This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:27






            • 1




              I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 14:18






            • 1




              @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 15:22












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.



            We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)



            • To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.


            • To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.


            Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Pf that Prop 2.4.3 implies Cor 2.8.11 without Counting Formula (Formula 2.8.8) or Lagrange's Theorem (Thm 2.8.9): Let $G$ be a group with prime order $p$. Then $|G|=p$. We must show that for any $x$ that is not the identity of $G$, we have that $langle x rangle = G$.



            Consider $x in G$ that is not the identity of $G$. Consider $x^k in G$, where $k$ is an integer. By Euclidean algorithm, we can write $k=pq+r$ where $q$ and $r$ are integers s.t. $r=0,1,...p-1$.



            By applying Prop 2.4.3 to G, we have, by the first and third bullet points, that order of $x^r =$ order of $x^k = p/gcd(k,p) = p/gcd(r,p)$, where the last equality is by a property of $gcd$. Now for $r ne 0$, i.e. $r=1,...,p-1$, we have that order of $x^r = p/gcd(r,p)=p/1=p$ because $p$ is prime, including $x^1$.



            We can show that the $p-1$ elements $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$ each have order $p$ and are distinct from, not only each other, but also the identity using the second bullet point of Prop 2.4.3. (Alternatively, we can deduce immediately from $x$'s having order $p$.)



            • To show they are distinct from each other: If there are two that are the same say $x^r_1 = x^r_2$ where $r_1, r_2 in 0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, then $x^ = 1$. Now, observe that $|r_1-r_2|$ is also in the set of exponents $0,1,...,n-1=p-1$, so by the second bullet point, $|r_1-r_2|=0$, i.e. $r_1=r_2$.


            • To show they are distinct from identity: All of the exponents are in $0,1,...n-1=p-1$, so since none of the exponents are $0$ and $x=x^1$ has order $p=n$, by the second bullet point, none of the powers of $x$ are the identity.


            Hence, we have distinct non-identity $p-1$ elements of $G$, namely $x^1,x^2,...,x^p-1$. Therefore, since $G$ has $p$ elements, $G = langle x rangle$. QED







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 1 at 13:31

























            answered Sep 1 at 12:22









            BCLC

            1




            1







            • 1




              Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:20










            • @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 13:23











            • This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:27






            • 1




              I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 14:18






            • 1




              @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 15:22












            • 1




              Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:20










            • @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 13:23











            • This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 13:27






            • 1




              I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
              – Daniel Buck
              Sep 1 at 14:18






            • 1




              @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
              – BCLC
              Sep 1 at 15:22







            1




            1




            Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 1 at 13:20




            Be careful about taking the absolute value $|r_1-r_2|$, i.e. if $|r_1-r_2|=|4-5|=|-1|=1$, not $p-1$, (remember $x^-r_2$ means take the multiplicative inverse of $x^r_2$). The point is $x^a=x^b$, iff $a-b$ is some multiple of the order of $x$, which here is $p$ (for all powers!) In fact Prop.2.4.2 (b) gives you this uniqueness via the Cancellation law?
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 1 at 13:20












            @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
            – BCLC
            Sep 1 at 13:23





            @DanielBuck Thanks! What do you mean please? I mean, $x^-14=1$ iff $x^14=1$?
            – BCLC
            Sep 1 at 13:23













            This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 1 at 13:27




            This boils down to checking $r_1equiv r_2pmodp$ i.e. they are both in the same residue class, but that is fine since $p$ is a prime you have $p$ pairwise incongruent numbers modulo $p$.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 1 at 13:27




            1




            1




            I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 1 at 14:18




            I guess things are fine since we are working with a prime, otherwise you can get zero-divisors. For example $2^6equiv4pmod6$ but $2^-6$ is undefined modulo $6$, whereas $5^6equiv5^-6equiv1pmod6$. Now since every element is invertible modulo $p$ it shoudn't be a worry, I was looking for circular reasoning, like you were forcing $r_1$ and $r_2$ to be the same, however your absolute value argument seems to take care of that.
            – Daniel Buck
            Sep 1 at 14:18




            1




            1




            @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
            – BCLC
            Sep 1 at 15:22




            @DanielBuck Thanks! ^-^
            – BCLC
            Sep 1 at 15:22

















             

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