Disjoint unions and countability

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First, let me say that when I say countable set I mean a set whose cardinality is less than or equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$. A set whose cardinality is strictly equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$ will be called countably infinite.



Also, $bigsqcup_i in I X_i = (i,x) in I timesbigcup_i in I X_i mid x in X_i $. Of course, $|bigcup_i in I X_i| leq |bigsqcup_i in I X_i|$.



Let $(X_i)_i in I$ be an indexed family with the index set $I$.



It is widely known that if $I$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) and $forall i in I, X_i$ is countable (resp., countable infinite), then $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ is itself countable (resp., countable infinite).



However, what if $I neq varnothing$ and



  • $(1)$ $I$ is countably infinite but each $X_i$ is only known to be countable? That is, there is a bijection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


  • $(2)$ And what if each $X_i$ is countably infinite while $I$ is just countable? That is, there is an injection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


The intuition tells me that in both cases $(1)$ and $(2)$ the disjoint union $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ will be countably infinite. However, how to prove it rigorously is another question entirely.



Remark. To construct a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections (resp., bijections) $X_itomathbbN$ knowing only that each $X_i$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) we need the axiom schema of replacement to obtain a set of sets of injections $X_itomathbbN$ (each for every $i in I$) and the axiom of choice to obtain a choice function of such set.



P.S. I don't know whether I should tag this as elementary set theory or set theory. Sorry.










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    First, let me say that when I say countable set I mean a set whose cardinality is less than or equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$. A set whose cardinality is strictly equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$ will be called countably infinite.



    Also, $bigsqcup_i in I X_i = (i,x) in I timesbigcup_i in I X_i mid x in X_i $. Of course, $|bigcup_i in I X_i| leq |bigsqcup_i in I X_i|$.



    Let $(X_i)_i in I$ be an indexed family with the index set $I$.



    It is widely known that if $I$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) and $forall i in I, X_i$ is countable (resp., countable infinite), then $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ is itself countable (resp., countable infinite).



    However, what if $I neq varnothing$ and



    • $(1)$ $I$ is countably infinite but each $X_i$ is only known to be countable? That is, there is a bijection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


    • $(2)$ And what if each $X_i$ is countably infinite while $I$ is just countable? That is, there is an injection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


    The intuition tells me that in both cases $(1)$ and $(2)$ the disjoint union $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ will be countably infinite. However, how to prove it rigorously is another question entirely.



    Remark. To construct a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections (resp., bijections) $X_itomathbbN$ knowing only that each $X_i$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) we need the axiom schema of replacement to obtain a set of sets of injections $X_itomathbbN$ (each for every $i in I$) and the axiom of choice to obtain a choice function of such set.



    P.S. I don't know whether I should tag this as elementary set theory or set theory. Sorry.










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      up vote
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      up vote
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      First, let me say that when I say countable set I mean a set whose cardinality is less than or equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$. A set whose cardinality is strictly equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$ will be called countably infinite.



      Also, $bigsqcup_i in I X_i = (i,x) in I timesbigcup_i in I X_i mid x in X_i $. Of course, $|bigcup_i in I X_i| leq |bigsqcup_i in I X_i|$.



      Let $(X_i)_i in I$ be an indexed family with the index set $I$.



      It is widely known that if $I$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) and $forall i in I, X_i$ is countable (resp., countable infinite), then $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ is itself countable (resp., countable infinite).



      However, what if $I neq varnothing$ and



      • $(1)$ $I$ is countably infinite but each $X_i$ is only known to be countable? That is, there is a bijection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


      • $(2)$ And what if each $X_i$ is countably infinite while $I$ is just countable? That is, there is an injection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


      The intuition tells me that in both cases $(1)$ and $(2)$ the disjoint union $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ will be countably infinite. However, how to prove it rigorously is another question entirely.



      Remark. To construct a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections (resp., bijections) $X_itomathbbN$ knowing only that each $X_i$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) we need the axiom schema of replacement to obtain a set of sets of injections $X_itomathbbN$ (each for every $i in I$) and the axiom of choice to obtain a choice function of such set.



      P.S. I don't know whether I should tag this as elementary set theory or set theory. Sorry.










      share|cite|improve this question















      First, let me say that when I say countable set I mean a set whose cardinality is less than or equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$. A set whose cardinality is strictly equal to the cardinality of $mathbbN$ will be called countably infinite.



      Also, $bigsqcup_i in I X_i = (i,x) in I timesbigcup_i in I X_i mid x in X_i $. Of course, $|bigcup_i in I X_i| leq |bigsqcup_i in I X_i|$.



      Let $(X_i)_i in I$ be an indexed family with the index set $I$.



      It is widely known that if $I$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) and $forall i in I, X_i$ is countable (resp., countable infinite), then $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ is itself countable (resp., countable infinite).



      However, what if $I neq varnothing$ and



      • $(1)$ $I$ is countably infinite but each $X_i$ is only known to be countable? That is, there is a bijection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


      • $(2)$ And what if each $X_i$ is countably infinite while $I$ is just countable? That is, there is an injection $fcolon ItomathbbN$ and a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections $X_itomathbbN$.


      The intuition tells me that in both cases $(1)$ and $(2)$ the disjoint union $bigsqcup_i in I X_i$ will be countably infinite. However, how to prove it rigorously is another question entirely.



      Remark. To construct a family $(f_i)_i in I$ of injections (resp., bijections) $X_itomathbbN$ knowing only that each $X_i$ is countable (resp., countably infinite) we need the axiom schema of replacement to obtain a set of sets of injections $X_itomathbbN$ (each for every $i in I$) and the axiom of choice to obtain a choice function of such set.



      P.S. I don't know whether I should tag this as elementary set theory or set theory. Sorry.







      elementary-set-theory cardinals






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      edited Sep 8 at 7:45

























      asked Sep 8 at 7:24









      Jxt921

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          Since the empty set is countable, (1) is not necessarily infinite, and neither is (2) if $I=emptyset$.






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          • While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
            – Asaf Karagila♦
            Sep 8 at 7:32











          • Thanks! Edited.
            – Jxt921
            Sep 8 at 7:50










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          Since the empty set is countable, (1) is not necessarily infinite, and neither is (2) if $I=emptyset$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
            – Asaf Karagila♦
            Sep 8 at 7:32











          • Thanks! Edited.
            – Jxt921
            Sep 8 at 7:50














          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Since the empty set is countable, (1) is not necessarily infinite, and neither is (2) if $I=emptyset$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
            – Asaf Karagila♦
            Sep 8 at 7:32











          • Thanks! Edited.
            – Jxt921
            Sep 8 at 7:50












          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          Since the empty set is countable, (1) is not necessarily infinite, and neither is (2) if $I=emptyset$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Since the empty set is countable, (1) is not necessarily infinite, and neither is (2) if $I=emptyset$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Sep 8 at 7:29









          Berci

          57.3k23670




          57.3k23670











          • While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
            – Asaf Karagila♦
            Sep 8 at 7:32











          • Thanks! Edited.
            – Jxt921
            Sep 8 at 7:50
















          • While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
            – Asaf Karagila♦
            Sep 8 at 7:32











          • Thanks! Edited.
            – Jxt921
            Sep 8 at 7:50















          While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
          – Asaf Karagila♦
          Sep 8 at 7:32





          While I agree it's helpful, this seems more of an oversight on the original intention. If the OP edits now, what's the worth of your answer?
          – Asaf Karagila♦
          Sep 8 at 7:32













          Thanks! Edited.
          – Jxt921
          Sep 8 at 7:50




          Thanks! Edited.
          – Jxt921
          Sep 8 at 7:50

















           

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