Is every conformal transformation a stereographic projection of an isometry of the inverse projection?

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Here is a really nice video that shows the following:



Suppose we have a subset of $mathbbCcup infty$. Then we can project it onto the 2-sphere via the inverse stereographic projection. If we rotate or translate the sphere in the surrounding $mathbbR^3$ and apply the stereographic projection again, then the result amounts to a Möbius transformation of the initial subset. Here is a screenshot to illustrate this:



$hskip2in$
enter image description here



Furthermore, on this wiki-page on conformal maps, the 4th paragraph of the subsection "Complex analysis" says that "A map of the extended complex plane (which is conformally equivalent to a sphere) onto itself is conformal if and only if it is a Möbius transformation."



Now this seems quite interesting to me because it seems to imply that if I take a subset of $mathbbR^2$ and apply a conformal transformation $Phi$ to it, then I can always write it as
beginequation
Phi = Pcirc phicirc P^-1
endequation
where $P$ is the stereographic projection and $phi$ is a rotation and/or translation of the sphere in 3-space.



My first question is: Is that right?



My second question concerns whether this generalises to higher dimensions. I saw the wiki page on Liouville's theorem which states that every conformal mapping in $mathbbR^n$, $nge 3$ is a Möbius transformation.
However, I am not sure if a Möbius transformation in higher dimensions still has the same intuitive meaning as in 2 dimensions.










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  • 1




    Not for a subset of $mathbb R^2$, no. How do you know that when you extend your transformation to all of $mathbb R^2$ (or rather, to $mathbb Ccupinfty$) that you will obtain a conformal and onto map?
    – Rahul
    Mar 13 at 7:02















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Here is a really nice video that shows the following:



Suppose we have a subset of $mathbbCcup infty$. Then we can project it onto the 2-sphere via the inverse stereographic projection. If we rotate or translate the sphere in the surrounding $mathbbR^3$ and apply the stereographic projection again, then the result amounts to a Möbius transformation of the initial subset. Here is a screenshot to illustrate this:



$hskip2in$
enter image description here



Furthermore, on this wiki-page on conformal maps, the 4th paragraph of the subsection "Complex analysis" says that "A map of the extended complex plane (which is conformally equivalent to a sphere) onto itself is conformal if and only if it is a Möbius transformation."



Now this seems quite interesting to me because it seems to imply that if I take a subset of $mathbbR^2$ and apply a conformal transformation $Phi$ to it, then I can always write it as
beginequation
Phi = Pcirc phicirc P^-1
endequation
where $P$ is the stereographic projection and $phi$ is a rotation and/or translation of the sphere in 3-space.



My first question is: Is that right?



My second question concerns whether this generalises to higher dimensions. I saw the wiki page on Liouville's theorem which states that every conformal mapping in $mathbbR^n$, $nge 3$ is a Möbius transformation.
However, I am not sure if a Möbius transformation in higher dimensions still has the same intuitive meaning as in 2 dimensions.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    Not for a subset of $mathbb R^2$, no. How do you know that when you extend your transformation to all of $mathbb R^2$ (or rather, to $mathbb Ccupinfty$) that you will obtain a conformal and onto map?
    – Rahul
    Mar 13 at 7:02













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Here is a really nice video that shows the following:



Suppose we have a subset of $mathbbCcup infty$. Then we can project it onto the 2-sphere via the inverse stereographic projection. If we rotate or translate the sphere in the surrounding $mathbbR^3$ and apply the stereographic projection again, then the result amounts to a Möbius transformation of the initial subset. Here is a screenshot to illustrate this:



$hskip2in$
enter image description here



Furthermore, on this wiki-page on conformal maps, the 4th paragraph of the subsection "Complex analysis" says that "A map of the extended complex plane (which is conformally equivalent to a sphere) onto itself is conformal if and only if it is a Möbius transformation."



Now this seems quite interesting to me because it seems to imply that if I take a subset of $mathbbR^2$ and apply a conformal transformation $Phi$ to it, then I can always write it as
beginequation
Phi = Pcirc phicirc P^-1
endequation
where $P$ is the stereographic projection and $phi$ is a rotation and/or translation of the sphere in 3-space.



My first question is: Is that right?



My second question concerns whether this generalises to higher dimensions. I saw the wiki page on Liouville's theorem which states that every conformal mapping in $mathbbR^n$, $nge 3$ is a Möbius transformation.
However, I am not sure if a Möbius transformation in higher dimensions still has the same intuitive meaning as in 2 dimensions.










share|cite|improve this question















Here is a really nice video that shows the following:



Suppose we have a subset of $mathbbCcup infty$. Then we can project it onto the 2-sphere via the inverse stereographic projection. If we rotate or translate the sphere in the surrounding $mathbbR^3$ and apply the stereographic projection again, then the result amounts to a Möbius transformation of the initial subset. Here is a screenshot to illustrate this:



$hskip2in$
enter image description here



Furthermore, on this wiki-page on conformal maps, the 4th paragraph of the subsection "Complex analysis" says that "A map of the extended complex plane (which is conformally equivalent to a sphere) onto itself is conformal if and only if it is a Möbius transformation."



Now this seems quite interesting to me because it seems to imply that if I take a subset of $mathbbR^2$ and apply a conformal transformation $Phi$ to it, then I can always write it as
beginequation
Phi = Pcirc phicirc P^-1
endequation
where $P$ is the stereographic projection and $phi$ is a rotation and/or translation of the sphere in 3-space.



My first question is: Is that right?



My second question concerns whether this generalises to higher dimensions. I saw the wiki page on Liouville's theorem which states that every conformal mapping in $mathbbR^n$, $nge 3$ is a Möbius transformation.
However, I am not sure if a Möbius transformation in higher dimensions still has the same intuitive meaning as in 2 dimensions.







geometry differential-geometry differential-topology symmetric-groups conformal-geometry






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edited Mar 13 at 22:03

























asked Mar 12 at 17:43









exchange

593313




593313







  • 1




    Not for a subset of $mathbb R^2$, no. How do you know that when you extend your transformation to all of $mathbb R^2$ (or rather, to $mathbb Ccupinfty$) that you will obtain a conformal and onto map?
    – Rahul
    Mar 13 at 7:02













  • 1




    Not for a subset of $mathbb R^2$, no. How do you know that when you extend your transformation to all of $mathbb R^2$ (or rather, to $mathbb Ccupinfty$) that you will obtain a conformal and onto map?
    – Rahul
    Mar 13 at 7:02








1




1




Not for a subset of $mathbb R^2$, no. How do you know that when you extend your transformation to all of $mathbb R^2$ (or rather, to $mathbb Ccupinfty$) that you will obtain a conformal and onto map?
– Rahul
Mar 13 at 7:02





Not for a subset of $mathbb R^2$, no. How do you know that when you extend your transformation to all of $mathbb R^2$ (or rather, to $mathbb Ccupinfty$) that you will obtain a conformal and onto map?
– Rahul
Mar 13 at 7:02











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Here is a counterexample. Let $Q$ be the open first quadrant in $mathbbC$, let $H$ be the open upper half plane of $mathbbC$, let $f : Q to H$ be the conformal transformation defined by $f(z)=z^2$. I'll abuse notation and write the inverse transformation $f^-1 : H to Q$ as $f^-1(z) = sqrtz$. Consider the following transformation:
$$Phi : Q xrightarrowz mapsto z^2 H xrightarrowz to z+1 H xrightarrowz mapsto sqrtz Q
$$
and so we may write $Phi(z) = sqrtz^2+1$. This map $Phi$ does not extend to a Möbius transformation of the extended complex plane. So, if you conjugate by stereographic projection to get $phi = P^-1 circ Phi circ P$, then $phi$ does not extend to any of the particularly nice functions on the 2-sphere that you ask about.



In general, conformal transformations are much wilder beasts than Möbius transformations. You might be interested in the Schwartzian Derivative, a quantity which, given a conformal transformation between two open subsets of the complex plane, let's you measure whether that transformation is "infinitesmally Möbius". Calculating the Schwartzian derivative of $sqrtz^2+1$ will show that it is not even infinitesmally Möbius, let alone the restriction of a Möbius transformation.



What you seem to have overlooked is what was mentioned in the comment of @Rahul: that theorem quoted from the wiki-page only applies to conformal bijections of $mathbbC cup infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:43







  • 1




    Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 19 at 20:48










  • Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:52







  • 1




    I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:18







  • 1




    By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:19

















up vote
1
down vote













(This answer was written before the large edit of the question.)



In defining a Moebius transformation $Tincal M$, $ T(z)=az+bover cz+d$, you have three complex, or six real, degrees of freedom, whereas in defining a rotation of $S^2$ you have just three real degrees of freedom: You can choose the axis, and then the rotation angle. This argument already shows that there are "many more" Moebius transformations than there are rotations of $S^2$. (It is unclear to me what you mean by a translation of $S^2$.)



Where are the three real degrees of freedom lost? Number one, a Moebius transformation may have any two points $a$, $binbar mathbb C$ as fixed points (there are even $Tincal M$ with just one fixed point), whereas the two fixed points of a rotation stereographically correspond to complex $a$, $b$ satisfying $abar b=-1$. Number two, for a general $Tincal M$ with two fixed points one is attracting, and the other repelling, whereas for a rotation the corresponding eigenvalue satisfies $|lambda|=1$.






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  • Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:16










  • Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:17










  • But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:34











  • I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:45










  • Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
    – mr_e_man
    Sep 7 at 22:41










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2 Answers
2






active

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votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Here is a counterexample. Let $Q$ be the open first quadrant in $mathbbC$, let $H$ be the open upper half plane of $mathbbC$, let $f : Q to H$ be the conformal transformation defined by $f(z)=z^2$. I'll abuse notation and write the inverse transformation $f^-1 : H to Q$ as $f^-1(z) = sqrtz$. Consider the following transformation:
$$Phi : Q xrightarrowz mapsto z^2 H xrightarrowz to z+1 H xrightarrowz mapsto sqrtz Q
$$
and so we may write $Phi(z) = sqrtz^2+1$. This map $Phi$ does not extend to a Möbius transformation of the extended complex plane. So, if you conjugate by stereographic projection to get $phi = P^-1 circ Phi circ P$, then $phi$ does not extend to any of the particularly nice functions on the 2-sphere that you ask about.



In general, conformal transformations are much wilder beasts than Möbius transformations. You might be interested in the Schwartzian Derivative, a quantity which, given a conformal transformation between two open subsets of the complex plane, let's you measure whether that transformation is "infinitesmally Möbius". Calculating the Schwartzian derivative of $sqrtz^2+1$ will show that it is not even infinitesmally Möbius, let alone the restriction of a Möbius transformation.



What you seem to have overlooked is what was mentioned in the comment of @Rahul: that theorem quoted from the wiki-page only applies to conformal bijections of $mathbbC cup infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:43







  • 1




    Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 19 at 20:48










  • Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:52







  • 1




    I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:18







  • 1




    By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:19














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Here is a counterexample. Let $Q$ be the open first quadrant in $mathbbC$, let $H$ be the open upper half plane of $mathbbC$, let $f : Q to H$ be the conformal transformation defined by $f(z)=z^2$. I'll abuse notation and write the inverse transformation $f^-1 : H to Q$ as $f^-1(z) = sqrtz$. Consider the following transformation:
$$Phi : Q xrightarrowz mapsto z^2 H xrightarrowz to z+1 H xrightarrowz mapsto sqrtz Q
$$
and so we may write $Phi(z) = sqrtz^2+1$. This map $Phi$ does not extend to a Möbius transformation of the extended complex plane. So, if you conjugate by stereographic projection to get $phi = P^-1 circ Phi circ P$, then $phi$ does not extend to any of the particularly nice functions on the 2-sphere that you ask about.



In general, conformal transformations are much wilder beasts than Möbius transformations. You might be interested in the Schwartzian Derivative, a quantity which, given a conformal transformation between two open subsets of the complex plane, let's you measure whether that transformation is "infinitesmally Möbius". Calculating the Schwartzian derivative of $sqrtz^2+1$ will show that it is not even infinitesmally Möbius, let alone the restriction of a Möbius transformation.



What you seem to have overlooked is what was mentioned in the comment of @Rahul: that theorem quoted from the wiki-page only applies to conformal bijections of $mathbbC cup infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:43







  • 1




    Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 19 at 20:48










  • Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:52







  • 1




    I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:18







  • 1




    By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:19












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Here is a counterexample. Let $Q$ be the open first quadrant in $mathbbC$, let $H$ be the open upper half plane of $mathbbC$, let $f : Q to H$ be the conformal transformation defined by $f(z)=z^2$. I'll abuse notation and write the inverse transformation $f^-1 : H to Q$ as $f^-1(z) = sqrtz$. Consider the following transformation:
$$Phi : Q xrightarrowz mapsto z^2 H xrightarrowz to z+1 H xrightarrowz mapsto sqrtz Q
$$
and so we may write $Phi(z) = sqrtz^2+1$. This map $Phi$ does not extend to a Möbius transformation of the extended complex plane. So, if you conjugate by stereographic projection to get $phi = P^-1 circ Phi circ P$, then $phi$ does not extend to any of the particularly nice functions on the 2-sphere that you ask about.



In general, conformal transformations are much wilder beasts than Möbius transformations. You might be interested in the Schwartzian Derivative, a quantity which, given a conformal transformation between two open subsets of the complex plane, let's you measure whether that transformation is "infinitesmally Möbius". Calculating the Schwartzian derivative of $sqrtz^2+1$ will show that it is not even infinitesmally Möbius, let alone the restriction of a Möbius transformation.



What you seem to have overlooked is what was mentioned in the comment of @Rahul: that theorem quoted from the wiki-page only applies to conformal bijections of $mathbbC cup infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer












Here is a counterexample. Let $Q$ be the open first quadrant in $mathbbC$, let $H$ be the open upper half plane of $mathbbC$, let $f : Q to H$ be the conformal transformation defined by $f(z)=z^2$. I'll abuse notation and write the inverse transformation $f^-1 : H to Q$ as $f^-1(z) = sqrtz$. Consider the following transformation:
$$Phi : Q xrightarrowz mapsto z^2 H xrightarrowz to z+1 H xrightarrowz mapsto sqrtz Q
$$
and so we may write $Phi(z) = sqrtz^2+1$. This map $Phi$ does not extend to a Möbius transformation of the extended complex plane. So, if you conjugate by stereographic projection to get $phi = P^-1 circ Phi circ P$, then $phi$ does not extend to any of the particularly nice functions on the 2-sphere that you ask about.



In general, conformal transformations are much wilder beasts than Möbius transformations. You might be interested in the Schwartzian Derivative, a quantity which, given a conformal transformation between two open subsets of the complex plane, let's you measure whether that transformation is "infinitesmally Möbius". Calculating the Schwartzian derivative of $sqrtz^2+1$ will show that it is not even infinitesmally Möbius, let alone the restriction of a Möbius transformation.



What you seem to have overlooked is what was mentioned in the comment of @Rahul: that theorem quoted from the wiki-page only applies to conformal bijections of $mathbbC cup infty$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 15 at 17:56









Lee Mosher

46.2k33579




46.2k33579











  • Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:43







  • 1




    Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 19 at 20:48










  • Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:52







  • 1




    I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:18







  • 1




    By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:19
















  • Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:43







  • 1




    Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 19 at 20:48










  • Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:52







  • 1




    I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:18







  • 1




    By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
    – Lee Mosher
    Mar 20 at 0:19















Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
– exchange
Mar 19 at 20:43





Thanks - very good answer! A last question then: This means that for a conformal transformations of $mathbbCcup infty$, the factorisation is always possible? I mean, is it always possible to write the Möbius trf. in such an inverseProjection-rotation/translation-projection way?
– exchange
Mar 19 at 20:43





1




1




Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
– Lee Mosher
Mar 19 at 20:48




Yes, and in fact this can be done with a uniformly bounded number of factors. But that's another question.
– Lee Mosher
Mar 19 at 20:48












Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
– exchange
Mar 19 at 20:52





Oh wow , that is interesting. So shall I ask another question or can you recommend some reading material where this is shown? To be honest I am not sure how a uniformly bounded number of factors would look like.
– exchange
Mar 19 at 20:52





1




1




I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
– Lee Mosher
Mar 20 at 0:18





I might recommend that you learn some hyperbolic geometry. As it turns out, $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the boundary at infinity of 3-dimensional hyperbolic geometry $mathbbH^3$, and the conformal group of $mathbbC cup infty$ can be identified with the group of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Then you can learn about the classification of isometries of $mathbbH^3$. Once you've got that under your belt, the kind of factorization you ask for is not too much harder.
– Lee Mosher
Mar 20 at 0:18





1




1




By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
– Lee Mosher
Mar 20 at 0:19




By the way, the easier case of Möbius transformations of $mathbbR cup infty$ is explained in a very nice book by John Stillwell entitled "Four Pillars of Geometry".
– Lee Mosher
Mar 20 at 0:19










up vote
1
down vote













(This answer was written before the large edit of the question.)



In defining a Moebius transformation $Tincal M$, $ T(z)=az+bover cz+d$, you have three complex, or six real, degrees of freedom, whereas in defining a rotation of $S^2$ you have just three real degrees of freedom: You can choose the axis, and then the rotation angle. This argument already shows that there are "many more" Moebius transformations than there are rotations of $S^2$. (It is unclear to me what you mean by a translation of $S^2$.)



Where are the three real degrees of freedom lost? Number one, a Moebius transformation may have any two points $a$, $binbar mathbb C$ as fixed points (there are even $Tincal M$ with just one fixed point), whereas the two fixed points of a rotation stereographically correspond to complex $a$, $b$ satisfying $abar b=-1$. Number two, for a general $Tincal M$ with two fixed points one is attracting, and the other repelling, whereas for a rotation the corresponding eigenvalue satisfies $|lambda|=1$.






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  • Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:16










  • Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:17










  • But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:34











  • I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:45










  • Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
    – mr_e_man
    Sep 7 at 22:41














up vote
1
down vote













(This answer was written before the large edit of the question.)



In defining a Moebius transformation $Tincal M$, $ T(z)=az+bover cz+d$, you have three complex, or six real, degrees of freedom, whereas in defining a rotation of $S^2$ you have just three real degrees of freedom: You can choose the axis, and then the rotation angle. This argument already shows that there are "many more" Moebius transformations than there are rotations of $S^2$. (It is unclear to me what you mean by a translation of $S^2$.)



Where are the three real degrees of freedom lost? Number one, a Moebius transformation may have any two points $a$, $binbar mathbb C$ as fixed points (there are even $Tincal M$ with just one fixed point), whereas the two fixed points of a rotation stereographically correspond to complex $a$, $b$ satisfying $abar b=-1$. Number two, for a general $Tincal M$ with two fixed points one is attracting, and the other repelling, whereas for a rotation the corresponding eigenvalue satisfies $|lambda|=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:16










  • Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:17










  • But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:34











  • I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:45










  • Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
    – mr_e_man
    Sep 7 at 22:41












up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









(This answer was written before the large edit of the question.)



In defining a Moebius transformation $Tincal M$, $ T(z)=az+bover cz+d$, you have three complex, or six real, degrees of freedom, whereas in defining a rotation of $S^2$ you have just three real degrees of freedom: You can choose the axis, and then the rotation angle. This argument already shows that there are "many more" Moebius transformations than there are rotations of $S^2$. (It is unclear to me what you mean by a translation of $S^2$.)



Where are the three real degrees of freedom lost? Number one, a Moebius transformation may have any two points $a$, $binbar mathbb C$ as fixed points (there are even $Tincal M$ with just one fixed point), whereas the two fixed points of a rotation stereographically correspond to complex $a$, $b$ satisfying $abar b=-1$. Number two, for a general $Tincal M$ with two fixed points one is attracting, and the other repelling, whereas for a rotation the corresponding eigenvalue satisfies $|lambda|=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer














(This answer was written before the large edit of the question.)



In defining a Moebius transformation $Tincal M$, $ T(z)=az+bover cz+d$, you have three complex, or six real, degrees of freedom, whereas in defining a rotation of $S^2$ you have just three real degrees of freedom: You can choose the axis, and then the rotation angle. This argument already shows that there are "many more" Moebius transformations than there are rotations of $S^2$. (It is unclear to me what you mean by a translation of $S^2$.)



Where are the three real degrees of freedom lost? Number one, a Moebius transformation may have any two points $a$, $binbar mathbb C$ as fixed points (there are even $Tincal M$ with just one fixed point), whereas the two fixed points of a rotation stereographically correspond to complex $a$, $b$ satisfying $abar b=-1$. Number two, for a general $Tincal M$ with two fixed points one is attracting, and the other repelling, whereas for a rotation the corresponding eigenvalue satisfies $|lambda|=1$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 8 at 8:07

























answered Mar 12 at 18:51









Christian Blatter

166k7110312




166k7110312











  • Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:16










  • Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:17










  • But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:34











  • I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:45










  • Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
    – mr_e_man
    Sep 7 at 22:41
















  • Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:16










  • Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:17










  • But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
    – exchange
    Mar 12 at 19:34











  • I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
    – exchange
    Mar 19 at 20:45










  • Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
    – mr_e_man
    Sep 7 at 22:41















Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
– exchange
Mar 12 at 19:16




Yes, a Möbius trf has 6 degrees of freedom. But I wrote that these correspond to rotations or translations of the sphere in 3-space which are in total also 6 degrees of freedom. Did you watch the video?
– exchange
Mar 12 at 19:16












Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
– exchange
Mar 12 at 19:17




Furthermore, you did not fully address my question because I asked for the correspondence of conformal trf with rotations/translations of the sphere and not only Möbius trf.
– exchange
Mar 12 at 19:17












But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
– exchange
Mar 12 at 19:34





But thank you of course for the answer. It still contains useful information.
– exchange
Mar 12 at 19:34













I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
– exchange
Mar 19 at 20:45




I just realised you asked about the translations: With these I meant translations of the n-sphere in the embedding n+1 euclidean space before the last projection.
– exchange
Mar 19 at 20:45












Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
– mr_e_man
Sep 7 at 22:41




Are you sure that shouldn't be $aoverline b = -1$ ?
– mr_e_man
Sep 7 at 22:41

















 

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