Open sets in complex projective space

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Let $BbbP^1$ be the complex projective line, with the topology given by the quotient topology of $Bbb C^2-0$ under scaling by $Bbb C^times$. Meaning as a set we have:
$$Bbb P^1 = BbbC^2-0/Bbb C^times.$$



We will denote the orbit of $(a,b)$ under this action by $[a:b]$.



Is it true that for any $Usubset Bbb C$ open, the set:
$$[1:z]mid zin U,$$
is open in $Bbb P^1$?



I can't seem to show this. I've tried to take the preimage under the quotient map:
$$q^-1([1:z]mid zin U)=lambda(1,z)mid lambdainBbb C^times,zin U,$$
$$=bigcup_lambdainBbb C^times(lambdatimeslambda U)$$
and then thinking of the product topology, but I can't seem to finish this off.










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    Let $BbbP^1$ be the complex projective line, with the topology given by the quotient topology of $Bbb C^2-0$ under scaling by $Bbb C^times$. Meaning as a set we have:
    $$Bbb P^1 = BbbC^2-0/Bbb C^times.$$



    We will denote the orbit of $(a,b)$ under this action by $[a:b]$.



    Is it true that for any $Usubset Bbb C$ open, the set:
    $$[1:z]mid zin U,$$
    is open in $Bbb P^1$?



    I can't seem to show this. I've tried to take the preimage under the quotient map:
    $$q^-1([1:z]mid zin U)=lambda(1,z)mid lambdainBbb C^times,zin U,$$
    $$=bigcup_lambdainBbb C^times(lambdatimeslambda U)$$
    and then thinking of the product topology, but I can't seem to finish this off.










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $BbbP^1$ be the complex projective line, with the topology given by the quotient topology of $Bbb C^2-0$ under scaling by $Bbb C^times$. Meaning as a set we have:
      $$Bbb P^1 = BbbC^2-0/Bbb C^times.$$



      We will denote the orbit of $(a,b)$ under this action by $[a:b]$.



      Is it true that for any $Usubset Bbb C$ open, the set:
      $$[1:z]mid zin U,$$
      is open in $Bbb P^1$?



      I can't seem to show this. I've tried to take the preimage under the quotient map:
      $$q^-1([1:z]mid zin U)=lambda(1,z)mid lambdainBbb C^times,zin U,$$
      $$=bigcup_lambdainBbb C^times(lambdatimeslambda U)$$
      and then thinking of the product topology, but I can't seem to finish this off.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $BbbP^1$ be the complex projective line, with the topology given by the quotient topology of $Bbb C^2-0$ under scaling by $Bbb C^times$. Meaning as a set we have:
      $$Bbb P^1 = BbbC^2-0/Bbb C^times.$$



      We will denote the orbit of $(a,b)$ under this action by $[a:b]$.



      Is it true that for any $Usubset Bbb C$ open, the set:
      $$[1:z]mid zin U,$$
      is open in $Bbb P^1$?



      I can't seem to show this. I've tried to take the preimage under the quotient map:
      $$q^-1([1:z]mid zin U)=lambda(1,z)mid lambdainBbb C^times,zin U,$$
      $$=bigcup_lambdainBbb C^times(lambdatimeslambda U)$$
      and then thinking of the product topology, but I can't seem to finish this off.







      algebraic-geometry projective-space






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      asked Sep 8 at 12:00









      user591163

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          Hint : the set $A = [1:z] : z in Bbb C$ is open in $Bbb P^1$, so open sets in $A$ are also open in $Bbb P^1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 12:40











          • Excellent! Thank you
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 13:20










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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

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          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Hint : the set $A = [1:z] : z in Bbb C$ is open in $Bbb P^1$, so open sets in $A$ are also open in $Bbb P^1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 12:40











          • Excellent! Thank you
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 13:20














          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Hint : the set $A = [1:z] : z in Bbb C$ is open in $Bbb P^1$, so open sets in $A$ are also open in $Bbb P^1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 12:40











          • Excellent! Thank you
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 13:20












          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          Hint : the set $A = [1:z] : z in Bbb C$ is open in $Bbb P^1$, so open sets in $A$ are also open in $Bbb P^1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint : the set $A = [1:z] : z in Bbb C$ is open in $Bbb P^1$, so open sets in $A$ are also open in $Bbb P^1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Sep 8 at 12:10









          Nicolas Hemelsoet

          5,225417




          5,225417











          • You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 12:40











          • Excellent! Thank you
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 13:20
















          • You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 12:40











          • Excellent! Thank you
            – user591163
            Sep 8 at 13:20















          You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
          – user591163
          Sep 8 at 12:40





          You are implicitly using the homeomorphism $U_0=Acong Bbb C$ given by $zmapsto [1:z]$?
          – user591163
          Sep 8 at 12:40













          Excellent! Thank you
          – user591163
          Sep 8 at 13:20




          Excellent! Thank you
          – user591163
          Sep 8 at 13:20

















           

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