Equicontinuity of $x^n$

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I'm stuck in an analysis problem, it states:




Let $lbrace f_n:[0,1)rightarrow mathbbRrbrace_nin mathbbN$, with $f_n(x)=x^n$. Prove that:



$i)$ The familiy is pointwise equicontinuous (i.e. for every $x_0in[0,1)$.



$ii)$ The familiy is NOT uniformly equicontinuous.




My attempt:



Por $i)$, we need to prove that for every $x_0in[0,1)$, and $forall varepsilon>0 quad exists delta=delta(varepsilon;x_0)>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$, then $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|<varepsilon$, for all $nin mathbbN$



So working with the last inequality, and using the mean value theorem, it exists $cin (0,1)$, such that $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)$



$|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|=|f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)|=|nc^n-1||x-x_0|<n|c|^n-1delta<ndelta<varepsilon$



So, by this kind of estimation, $delta=varepsilon/n$. But this choice of $delta$ clearly depends on $n$. And it shouldn't!



And for part 2 I don't have clue. Any help or advise will be appreciated.







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite
    4












    I'm stuck in an analysis problem, it states:




    Let $lbrace f_n:[0,1)rightarrow mathbbRrbrace_nin mathbbN$, with $f_n(x)=x^n$. Prove that:



    $i)$ The familiy is pointwise equicontinuous (i.e. for every $x_0in[0,1)$.



    $ii)$ The familiy is NOT uniformly equicontinuous.




    My attempt:



    Por $i)$, we need to prove that for every $x_0in[0,1)$, and $forall varepsilon>0 quad exists delta=delta(varepsilon;x_0)>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$, then $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|<varepsilon$, for all $nin mathbbN$



    So working with the last inequality, and using the mean value theorem, it exists $cin (0,1)$, such that $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)$



    $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|=|f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)|=|nc^n-1||x-x_0|<n|c|^n-1delta<ndelta<varepsilon$



    So, by this kind of estimation, $delta=varepsilon/n$. But this choice of $delta$ clearly depends on $n$. And it shouldn't!



    And for part 2 I don't have clue. Any help or advise will be appreciated.







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      4









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      4






      4





      I'm stuck in an analysis problem, it states:




      Let $lbrace f_n:[0,1)rightarrow mathbbRrbrace_nin mathbbN$, with $f_n(x)=x^n$. Prove that:



      $i)$ The familiy is pointwise equicontinuous (i.e. for every $x_0in[0,1)$.



      $ii)$ The familiy is NOT uniformly equicontinuous.




      My attempt:



      Por $i)$, we need to prove that for every $x_0in[0,1)$, and $forall varepsilon>0 quad exists delta=delta(varepsilon;x_0)>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$, then $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|<varepsilon$, for all $nin mathbbN$



      So working with the last inequality, and using the mean value theorem, it exists $cin (0,1)$, such that $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)$



      $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|=|f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)|=|nc^n-1||x-x_0|<n|c|^n-1delta<ndelta<varepsilon$



      So, by this kind of estimation, $delta=varepsilon/n$. But this choice of $delta$ clearly depends on $n$. And it shouldn't!



      And for part 2 I don't have clue. Any help or advise will be appreciated.







      share|cite|improve this question














      I'm stuck in an analysis problem, it states:




      Let $lbrace f_n:[0,1)rightarrow mathbbRrbrace_nin mathbbN$, with $f_n(x)=x^n$. Prove that:



      $i)$ The familiy is pointwise equicontinuous (i.e. for every $x_0in[0,1)$.



      $ii)$ The familiy is NOT uniformly equicontinuous.




      My attempt:



      Por $i)$, we need to prove that for every $x_0in[0,1)$, and $forall varepsilon>0 quad exists delta=delta(varepsilon;x_0)>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$, then $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|<varepsilon$, for all $nin mathbbN$



      So working with the last inequality, and using the mean value theorem, it exists $cin (0,1)$, such that $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)$



      $|f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)|=|f_n^'(c)(x-x_0)|=|nc^n-1||x-x_0|<n|c|^n-1delta<ndelta<varepsilon$



      So, by this kind of estimation, $delta=varepsilon/n$. But this choice of $delta$ clearly depends on $n$. And it shouldn't!



      And for part 2 I don't have clue. Any help or advise will be appreciated.









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      edited Apr 1 '17 at 1:29

























      asked Apr 1 '17 at 1:24









      User117E29

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          2 Answers
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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $varepsilon>0$ be given, and let $K$ be a nonempty compact subset of $[0, 1)$. Set $s = max K $. Either $s=0 $ or $s>0$. The former case is trivial ($K=0$), and so we assume there is a number $r>0$ such that $s=frac11+r$. By induction we obtain
          beginalign displaystylefrac1(1+r)^n leq frac11+nr
          endalign
          for all positive integers $n$ (Bernoulli's Inequality). We may find a positive integer $N$ such that $varepsilon N > frac1r$ (Archimedean Principle). Thus
          beginalign displaystyle left| ,f_n (s) right| < varepsilon , text whenever , ngeq N ,.
          endalign



          Since $K$ was given as an arbitrary compact subset of $[0,1)$, we have shown that the sequence of functions $, f_n_n=1^infty$ converges uniformly on every compact subset of $[0, 1)$. In other words, the sequence of functions $,f_n_n=1^infty$ is normal in $[0,1)$. I think knowing some Italians would be a good thing to have to your avail at this point.



          If you really want to hold my feet to a fire, I can explain how to further show that the family is equicontinuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 1




            Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
            – User117E29
            Apr 1 '17 at 3:17










          • Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
            – Matt A Pelto
            Apr 1 '17 at 3:44

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          For part ii): Suppose $f_n$ is uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$ Let $epsilon= (e^-1/2 - e^-1)/2.$ Then there exists $delta > 0$ such that $x,y in [0,1),$ $|y-x| < delta,$ implies $|f_n(y)-f_n(x)| < epsilon.$ Now for large $n,$ $1/2n< delta.$ So for large $n,$



          $$tag 1 |f_n(1-1/n + 1/2n) -f_n(1-1/n)| < epsilon.$$



          But the left side of $(1)$ converges to $e^-1/2 - e^-1.$ Thus for large $n,$ $(1)$ fails. We have a contradiction, proving $f_n$ is not uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $varepsilon>0$ be given, and let $K$ be a nonempty compact subset of $[0, 1)$. Set $s = max K $. Either $s=0 $ or $s>0$. The former case is trivial ($K=0$), and so we assume there is a number $r>0$ such that $s=frac11+r$. By induction we obtain
            beginalign displaystylefrac1(1+r)^n leq frac11+nr
            endalign
            for all positive integers $n$ (Bernoulli's Inequality). We may find a positive integer $N$ such that $varepsilon N > frac1r$ (Archimedean Principle). Thus
            beginalign displaystyle left| ,f_n (s) right| < varepsilon , text whenever , ngeq N ,.
            endalign



            Since $K$ was given as an arbitrary compact subset of $[0,1)$, we have shown that the sequence of functions $, f_n_n=1^infty$ converges uniformly on every compact subset of $[0, 1)$. In other words, the sequence of functions $,f_n_n=1^infty$ is normal in $[0,1)$. I think knowing some Italians would be a good thing to have to your avail at this point.



            If you really want to hold my feet to a fire, I can explain how to further show that the family is equicontinuous.






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 1




              Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
              – User117E29
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:17










            • Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
              – Matt A Pelto
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:44














            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $varepsilon>0$ be given, and let $K$ be a nonempty compact subset of $[0, 1)$. Set $s = max K $. Either $s=0 $ or $s>0$. The former case is trivial ($K=0$), and so we assume there is a number $r>0$ such that $s=frac11+r$. By induction we obtain
            beginalign displaystylefrac1(1+r)^n leq frac11+nr
            endalign
            for all positive integers $n$ (Bernoulli's Inequality). We may find a positive integer $N$ such that $varepsilon N > frac1r$ (Archimedean Principle). Thus
            beginalign displaystyle left| ,f_n (s) right| < varepsilon , text whenever , ngeq N ,.
            endalign



            Since $K$ was given as an arbitrary compact subset of $[0,1)$, we have shown that the sequence of functions $, f_n_n=1^infty$ converges uniformly on every compact subset of $[0, 1)$. In other words, the sequence of functions $,f_n_n=1^infty$ is normal in $[0,1)$. I think knowing some Italians would be a good thing to have to your avail at this point.



            If you really want to hold my feet to a fire, I can explain how to further show that the family is equicontinuous.






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 1




              Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
              – User117E29
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:17










            • Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
              – Matt A Pelto
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:44












            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            Let $varepsilon>0$ be given, and let $K$ be a nonempty compact subset of $[0, 1)$. Set $s = max K $. Either $s=0 $ or $s>0$. The former case is trivial ($K=0$), and so we assume there is a number $r>0$ such that $s=frac11+r$. By induction we obtain
            beginalign displaystylefrac1(1+r)^n leq frac11+nr
            endalign
            for all positive integers $n$ (Bernoulli's Inequality). We may find a positive integer $N$ such that $varepsilon N > frac1r$ (Archimedean Principle). Thus
            beginalign displaystyle left| ,f_n (s) right| < varepsilon , text whenever , ngeq N ,.
            endalign



            Since $K$ was given as an arbitrary compact subset of $[0,1)$, we have shown that the sequence of functions $, f_n_n=1^infty$ converges uniformly on every compact subset of $[0, 1)$. In other words, the sequence of functions $,f_n_n=1^infty$ is normal in $[0,1)$. I think knowing some Italians would be a good thing to have to your avail at this point.



            If you really want to hold my feet to a fire, I can explain how to further show that the family is equicontinuous.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Let $varepsilon>0$ be given, and let $K$ be a nonempty compact subset of $[0, 1)$. Set $s = max K $. Either $s=0 $ or $s>0$. The former case is trivial ($K=0$), and so we assume there is a number $r>0$ such that $s=frac11+r$. By induction we obtain
            beginalign displaystylefrac1(1+r)^n leq frac11+nr
            endalign
            for all positive integers $n$ (Bernoulli's Inequality). We may find a positive integer $N$ such that $varepsilon N > frac1r$ (Archimedean Principle). Thus
            beginalign displaystyle left| ,f_n (s) right| < varepsilon , text whenever , ngeq N ,.
            endalign



            Since $K$ was given as an arbitrary compact subset of $[0,1)$, we have shown that the sequence of functions $, f_n_n=1^infty$ converges uniformly on every compact subset of $[0, 1)$. In other words, the sequence of functions $,f_n_n=1^infty$ is normal in $[0,1)$. I think knowing some Italians would be a good thing to have to your avail at this point.



            If you really want to hold my feet to a fire, I can explain how to further show that the family is equicontinuous.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 20 at 6:33

























            answered Apr 1 '17 at 2:32









            Matt A Pelto

            1,719519




            1,719519







            • 1




              Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
              – User117E29
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:17










            • Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
              – Matt A Pelto
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:44












            • 1




              Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
              – User117E29
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:17










            • Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
              – Matt A Pelto
              Apr 1 '17 at 3:44







            1




            1




            Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
            – User117E29
            Apr 1 '17 at 3:17




            Haha, I laughed when saw "knowing some Italians". I've searched what a normal family is, and it says that it has a subsequence that converges, then by the "Italians-Theorem", the family is equicontinuous. Thanks a lot.
            – User117E29
            Apr 1 '17 at 3:17












            Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
            – Matt A Pelto
            Apr 1 '17 at 3:44




            Technically we have standard (not a contrived subsequence) uniform convergence here. This combined with the fact that every function in the sequence is continuous helps because setting $delta = min[delta_1, delta_2, ldots, delta_N-1, delta_N]$ should work for every function in the family. Now notice that $N$ and so $delta$ depends on $K$ or rather $s in [0, 1)$. If someone wants to assume uniformly equicontinuous and reach a contradiction, then perhaps consider neighborhoods of $1$.
            – Matt A Pelto
            Apr 1 '17 at 3:44










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            For part ii): Suppose $f_n$ is uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$ Let $epsilon= (e^-1/2 - e^-1)/2.$ Then there exists $delta > 0$ such that $x,y in [0,1),$ $|y-x| < delta,$ implies $|f_n(y)-f_n(x)| < epsilon.$ Now for large $n,$ $1/2n< delta.$ So for large $n,$



            $$tag 1 |f_n(1-1/n + 1/2n) -f_n(1-1/n)| < epsilon.$$



            But the left side of $(1)$ converges to $e^-1/2 - e^-1.$ Thus for large $n,$ $(1)$ fails. We have a contradiction, proving $f_n$ is not uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              3
              down vote













              For part ii): Suppose $f_n$ is uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$ Let $epsilon= (e^-1/2 - e^-1)/2.$ Then there exists $delta > 0$ such that $x,y in [0,1),$ $|y-x| < delta,$ implies $|f_n(y)-f_n(x)| < epsilon.$ Now for large $n,$ $1/2n< delta.$ So for large $n,$



              $$tag 1 |f_n(1-1/n + 1/2n) -f_n(1-1/n)| < epsilon.$$



              But the left side of $(1)$ converges to $e^-1/2 - e^-1.$ Thus for large $n,$ $(1)$ fails. We have a contradiction, proving $f_n$ is not uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                For part ii): Suppose $f_n$ is uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$ Let $epsilon= (e^-1/2 - e^-1)/2.$ Then there exists $delta > 0$ such that $x,y in [0,1),$ $|y-x| < delta,$ implies $|f_n(y)-f_n(x)| < epsilon.$ Now for large $n,$ $1/2n< delta.$ So for large $n,$



                $$tag 1 |f_n(1-1/n + 1/2n) -f_n(1-1/n)| < epsilon.$$



                But the left side of $(1)$ converges to $e^-1/2 - e^-1.$ Thus for large $n,$ $(1)$ fails. We have a contradiction, proving $f_n$ is not uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                For part ii): Suppose $f_n$ is uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$ Let $epsilon= (e^-1/2 - e^-1)/2.$ Then there exists $delta > 0$ such that $x,y in [0,1),$ $|y-x| < delta,$ implies $|f_n(y)-f_n(x)| < epsilon.$ Now for large $n,$ $1/2n< delta.$ So for large $n,$



                $$tag 1 |f_n(1-1/n + 1/2n) -f_n(1-1/n)| < epsilon.$$



                But the left side of $(1)$ converges to $e^-1/2 - e^-1.$ Thus for large $n,$ $(1)$ fails. We have a contradiction, proving $f_n$ is not uniformly equicontinuous on $[0,1).$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 1 '17 at 6:05









                zhw.

                66.8k42872




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