Area of parallogram in two dimensions using cross product [duplicate]

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  • Why does the magnitude of the cross-product of a and b give the area of a parallelogram spanned by a and b?

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I was shocked to find that the area of parallelogram in two dimensions can be found by cross multiplying two adjacent vectors.



I understand that in three dimensions the area of parallelogram is the cross product of two adjacent vectors $$|a times b|$$ but no text books have explained why in two dimensions cross product of two adjacent vectors are the area of a parallogram. Could someone explain?







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marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, Eric Wofsey, Lord Shark the Unknown, Brahadeesh, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Aug 21 at 8:09


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite













    This question already has an answer here:



    • Why does the magnitude of the cross-product of a and b give the area of a parallelogram spanned by a and b?

      4 answers



    enter image description here



    I was shocked to find that the area of parallelogram in two dimensions can be found by cross multiplying two adjacent vectors.



    I understand that in three dimensions the area of parallelogram is the cross product of two adjacent vectors $$|a times b|$$ but no text books have explained why in two dimensions cross product of two adjacent vectors are the area of a parallogram. Could someone explain?







    share|cite|improve this question












    marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, Eric Wofsey, Lord Shark the Unknown, Brahadeesh, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Aug 21 at 8:09


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      This question already has an answer here:



      • Why does the magnitude of the cross-product of a and b give the area of a parallelogram spanned by a and b?

        4 answers



      enter image description here



      I was shocked to find that the area of parallelogram in two dimensions can be found by cross multiplying two adjacent vectors.



      I understand that in three dimensions the area of parallelogram is the cross product of two adjacent vectors $$|a times b|$$ but no text books have explained why in two dimensions cross product of two adjacent vectors are the area of a parallogram. Could someone explain?







      share|cite|improve this question













      This question already has an answer here:



      • Why does the magnitude of the cross-product of a and b give the area of a parallelogram spanned by a and b?

        4 answers



      enter image description here



      I was shocked to find that the area of parallelogram in two dimensions can be found by cross multiplying two adjacent vectors.



      I understand that in three dimensions the area of parallelogram is the cross product of two adjacent vectors $$|a times b|$$ but no text books have explained why in two dimensions cross product of two adjacent vectors are the area of a parallogram. Could someone explain?





      This question already has an answer here:



      • Why does the magnitude of the cross-product of a and b give the area of a parallelogram spanned by a and b?

        4 answers









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 20 at 11:17









      강승태

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      224




      marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, Eric Wofsey, Lord Shark the Unknown, Brahadeesh, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Aug 21 at 8:09


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






      marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, Eric Wofsey, Lord Shark the Unknown, Brahadeesh, Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Aug 21 at 8:09


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






















          2 Answers
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          Basically, because it is true in dimension $3$. So, if $v=(a,b)$ and $w=(c,d)$ are two vectors of $mathbbR^2$, consider $v^star=(a,b,0)$ and $w^star=(c,d,0)$. Then $v^star,w^starinmathbbR^3$ and the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$ is equal to the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v^star$ and $w^star$, which is $|v^startimes w^star|$.






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          • thanks. now it is clearer.
            – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
            Aug 20 at 11:47











          • @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 20 at 11:49

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Another way of looking at it: The dot product of two vectors, u and v, is given by $|u||v|sin(theta)$ where $theta$ is the angle between the two vectors. The area of a parallelogram is "base times height" where the "height" is measured perpendicular to "base". If we take v to be the base, dropping a perpendicular from the tip of u to v, we have a right triangle with angle $theta$ and hypotenuse |u|. The height, the "opposite side" is given by $|u|sin(theta)$ so the area of the parallelogram, "base times height", is $|v|(|u|sin(theta))= |u||v|sin(theta)$, the dot product.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Basically, because it is true in dimension $3$. So, if $v=(a,b)$ and $w=(c,d)$ are two vectors of $mathbbR^2$, consider $v^star=(a,b,0)$ and $w^star=(c,d,0)$. Then $v^star,w^starinmathbbR^3$ and the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$ is equal to the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v^star$ and $w^star$, which is $|v^startimes w^star|$.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • thanks. now it is clearer.
              – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
              Aug 20 at 11:47











            • @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Aug 20 at 11:49














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Basically, because it is true in dimension $3$. So, if $v=(a,b)$ and $w=(c,d)$ are two vectors of $mathbbR^2$, consider $v^star=(a,b,0)$ and $w^star=(c,d,0)$. Then $v^star,w^starinmathbbR^3$ and the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$ is equal to the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v^star$ and $w^star$, which is $|v^startimes w^star|$.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • thanks. now it is clearer.
              – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
              Aug 20 at 11:47











            • @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Aug 20 at 11:49












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Basically, because it is true in dimension $3$. So, if $v=(a,b)$ and $w=(c,d)$ are two vectors of $mathbbR^2$, consider $v^star=(a,b,0)$ and $w^star=(c,d,0)$. Then $v^star,w^starinmathbbR^3$ and the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$ is equal to the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v^star$ and $w^star$, which is $|v^startimes w^star|$.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Basically, because it is true in dimension $3$. So, if $v=(a,b)$ and $w=(c,d)$ are two vectors of $mathbbR^2$, consider $v^star=(a,b,0)$ and $w^star=(c,d,0)$. Then $v^star,w^starinmathbbR^3$ and the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$ is equal to the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v^star$ and $w^star$, which is $|v^startimes w^star|$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Aug 20 at 11:20









            José Carlos Santos

            118k16101180




            118k16101180











            • thanks. now it is clearer.
              – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
              Aug 20 at 11:47











            • @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Aug 20 at 11:49
















            • thanks. now it is clearer.
              – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
              Aug 20 at 11:47











            • @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Aug 20 at 11:49















            thanks. now it is clearer.
            – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
            Aug 20 at 11:47





            thanks. now it is clearer.
            – ê°•ìŠ¹íƒœ
            Aug 20 at 11:47













            @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 20 at 11:49




            @강승태 If my answer was useful, perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 20 at 11:49










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Another way of looking at it: The dot product of two vectors, u and v, is given by $|u||v|sin(theta)$ where $theta$ is the angle between the two vectors. The area of a parallelogram is "base times height" where the "height" is measured perpendicular to "base". If we take v to be the base, dropping a perpendicular from the tip of u to v, we have a right triangle with angle $theta$ and hypotenuse |u|. The height, the "opposite side" is given by $|u|sin(theta)$ so the area of the parallelogram, "base times height", is $|v|(|u|sin(theta))= |u||v|sin(theta)$, the dot product.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Another way of looking at it: The dot product of two vectors, u and v, is given by $|u||v|sin(theta)$ where $theta$ is the angle between the two vectors. The area of a parallelogram is "base times height" where the "height" is measured perpendicular to "base". If we take v to be the base, dropping a perpendicular from the tip of u to v, we have a right triangle with angle $theta$ and hypotenuse |u|. The height, the "opposite side" is given by $|u|sin(theta)$ so the area of the parallelogram, "base times height", is $|v|(|u|sin(theta))= |u||v|sin(theta)$, the dot product.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                Another way of looking at it: The dot product of two vectors, u and v, is given by $|u||v|sin(theta)$ where $theta$ is the angle between the two vectors. The area of a parallelogram is "base times height" where the "height" is measured perpendicular to "base". If we take v to be the base, dropping a perpendicular from the tip of u to v, we have a right triangle with angle $theta$ and hypotenuse |u|. The height, the "opposite side" is given by $|u|sin(theta)$ so the area of the parallelogram, "base times height", is $|v|(|u|sin(theta))= |u||v|sin(theta)$, the dot product.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Another way of looking at it: The dot product of two vectors, u and v, is given by $|u||v|sin(theta)$ where $theta$ is the angle between the two vectors. The area of a parallelogram is "base times height" where the "height" is measured perpendicular to "base". If we take v to be the base, dropping a perpendicular from the tip of u to v, we have a right triangle with angle $theta$ and hypotenuse |u|. The height, the "opposite side" is given by $|u|sin(theta)$ so the area of the parallelogram, "base times height", is $|v|(|u|sin(theta))= |u||v|sin(theta)$, the dot product.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Aug 20 at 12:06









                user247327

                9,7921515




                9,7921515












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