Proof explanation: Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$ [duplicate]

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  • Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$

    1 answer



Two days ago, I asked a question
Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$ but was answered just once. However, I am finding it hard to understand the proof provided.



Please, I'll need thorough explanation or another proof. As to the proof, I don't understand



  1. why triple sum was used and not double.


  2. If we differentiate $g(x)=f(b)-f(x)-f'(x)(b-x)$, what do we get?


I am asking because I find it hard to comprehend the proof. Please, can anyone explain these to me? Alternative proofs are welcome.



Thanks.







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  • Why are you re-asking the same very question? I mentioned your previous question was confusing because of bad notations. And again you have accepted an answer that doesn't take multivariable calculus into account. Why did you accept the answer to the previous question if it wasn't clear to you?
    – rtybase
    Aug 20 at 17:37











  • @rtybase: I'm sorry for that!
    – Mike
    Aug 21 at 2:10














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This question already has an answer here:



  • Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$

    1 answer



Two days ago, I asked a question
Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$ but was answered just once. However, I am finding it hard to understand the proof provided.



Please, I'll need thorough explanation or another proof. As to the proof, I don't understand



  1. why triple sum was used and not double.


  2. If we differentiate $g(x)=f(b)-f(x)-f'(x)(b-x)$, what do we get?


I am asking because I find it hard to comprehend the proof. Please, can anyone explain these to me? Alternative proofs are welcome.



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question












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  • Why are you re-asking the same very question? I mentioned your previous question was confusing because of bad notations. And again you have accepted an answer that doesn't take multivariable calculus into account. Why did you accept the answer to the previous question if it wasn't clear to you?
    – rtybase
    Aug 20 at 17:37











  • @rtybase: I'm sorry for that!
    – Mike
    Aug 21 at 2:10












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This question already has an answer here:



  • Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$

    1 answer



Two days ago, I asked a question
Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$ but was answered just once. However, I am finding it hard to understand the proof provided.



Please, I'll need thorough explanation or another proof. As to the proof, I don't understand



  1. why triple sum was used and not double.


  2. If we differentiate $g(x)=f(b)-f(x)-f'(x)(b-x)$, what do we get?


I am asking because I find it hard to comprehend the proof. Please, can anyone explain these to me? Alternative proofs are welcome.



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question













This question already has an answer here:



  • Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$

    1 answer



Two days ago, I asked a question
Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$ but was answered just once. However, I am finding it hard to understand the proof provided.



Please, I'll need thorough explanation or another proof. As to the proof, I don't understand



  1. why triple sum was used and not double.


  2. If we differentiate $g(x)=f(b)-f(x)-f'(x)(b-x)$, what do we get?


I am asking because I find it hard to comprehend the proof. Please, can anyone explain these to me? Alternative proofs are welcome.



Thanks.





This question already has an answer here:



  • Prove that $Vert f(b)-f(a)-f'(a)(b-a) Vertleq sup_xin [a,b] Vert f''(x)VertVert b-aVert^2$

    1 answer









share|cite|improve this question











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asked Aug 20 at 13:29









Mike

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marked as duplicate by rtybase, amWhy, Adrian Keister, Stefan4024, José Carlos Santos real-analysis
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This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.













  • Why are you re-asking the same very question? I mentioned your previous question was confusing because of bad notations. And again you have accepted an answer that doesn't take multivariable calculus into account. Why did you accept the answer to the previous question if it wasn't clear to you?
    – rtybase
    Aug 20 at 17:37











  • @rtybase: I'm sorry for that!
    – Mike
    Aug 21 at 2:10
















  • Why are you re-asking the same very question? I mentioned your previous question was confusing because of bad notations. And again you have accepted an answer that doesn't take multivariable calculus into account. Why did you accept the answer to the previous question if it wasn't clear to you?
    – rtybase
    Aug 20 at 17:37











  • @rtybase: I'm sorry for that!
    – Mike
    Aug 21 at 2:10















Why are you re-asking the same very question? I mentioned your previous question was confusing because of bad notations. And again you have accepted an answer that doesn't take multivariable calculus into account. Why did you accept the answer to the previous question if it wasn't clear to you?
– rtybase
Aug 20 at 17:37





Why are you re-asking the same very question? I mentioned your previous question was confusing because of bad notations. And again you have accepted an answer that doesn't take multivariable calculus into account. Why did you accept the answer to the previous question if it wasn't clear to you?
– rtybase
Aug 20 at 17:37













@rtybase: I'm sorry for that!
– Mike
Aug 21 at 2:10




@rtybase: I'm sorry for that!
– Mike
Aug 21 at 2:10










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Recall Taylor's formula for $gcolon[0,1]rightarrowmathbbR^m$ twice differentiable
$$
g(1)=g(0)+g'(0)+int_0^1g^primeprime(s)(1-s)mathrmds;
$$
(I will prove this ad hoc bellow). Now apply this to the function $g(t):= f((1-t)a+tb)$ for $tin[0,1]$ to get your answer:



Answer: By the chain rule:
$$
f(b)=f(a)+f^prime(a)(b-a)+int_0^1(1-t)langle a-b,f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)ranglemathrmdt
$$
so that by the triangle inequality for integrals
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leq int_0^1 (1-t)|f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(b-a)||b-a|mathrmd t\
leq sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|int_0^1 (1-t)mathrmdt\
=frac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|
$$
where in the first inequality we applied Cauchy-Schwarz. Now it seems to me that one can get $frac12$ as the best constant here (clearly optimal if $n=1$), but the answer is, in any case, quite irrelevant as on finite dimensional spaces all norms are equivalent and you do not state clearly what is the norm on $mathbbR^ntimes n$ (i.e., where $f^primeprime$ sits). However, let's say that we work with Euclidean (square) norms only. Let $MinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Then, again by Cauchy-Schwarz,
$$
|Mx|^2=sum_i=1^n (ROW_jMcdot x)^2leq sum_i=1^n |ROW_jM|^2| x|^2=|M|^2|x|^2,
$$
so that we can substitute $M=f^primeprime(a)$, $x=b-a$ to get
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leqfrac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)||b-a|^2.
$$
Proof of Taylor's formula: Let
$$
I=int_0^1dfracmathrmdmathrmds[(1-s)g^prime(s)]mathrmds,
$$
which we compute in two ways. First, by FTC
$$
I=-g^prime(0).
$$
Second, by the product rule and linearity of integration,
$$
I=int_0^1-g^prime(s)mathrmds+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds=-g(1)+g(0)+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds.
$$
Minor appendix: As it stands, my proof tackles the case $m=1$; however, it is completely trivial to extend it (though it is not entirely clear how/if the constant suffers; this of course depends on your choices of norms on $mathbbR^n$ and $mathbbR^m$).



Philosophy: This problem is in any case 1-dimensional; the LHS is the first order Taylor polynomial with step $b-a$, so of course it gives an error $o(|b-a|^2)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
    – Mike
    Aug 20 at 15:46











  • $(a-b)$ is a vector
    – Sobolev
    Aug 20 at 15:49


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Recall Taylor's formula for $gcolon[0,1]rightarrowmathbbR^m$ twice differentiable
$$
g(1)=g(0)+g'(0)+int_0^1g^primeprime(s)(1-s)mathrmds;
$$
(I will prove this ad hoc bellow). Now apply this to the function $g(t):= f((1-t)a+tb)$ for $tin[0,1]$ to get your answer:



Answer: By the chain rule:
$$
f(b)=f(a)+f^prime(a)(b-a)+int_0^1(1-t)langle a-b,f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)ranglemathrmdt
$$
so that by the triangle inequality for integrals
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leq int_0^1 (1-t)|f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(b-a)||b-a|mathrmd t\
leq sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|int_0^1 (1-t)mathrmdt\
=frac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|
$$
where in the first inequality we applied Cauchy-Schwarz. Now it seems to me that one can get $frac12$ as the best constant here (clearly optimal if $n=1$), but the answer is, in any case, quite irrelevant as on finite dimensional spaces all norms are equivalent and you do not state clearly what is the norm on $mathbbR^ntimes n$ (i.e., where $f^primeprime$ sits). However, let's say that we work with Euclidean (square) norms only. Let $MinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Then, again by Cauchy-Schwarz,
$$
|Mx|^2=sum_i=1^n (ROW_jMcdot x)^2leq sum_i=1^n |ROW_jM|^2| x|^2=|M|^2|x|^2,
$$
so that we can substitute $M=f^primeprime(a)$, $x=b-a$ to get
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leqfrac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)||b-a|^2.
$$
Proof of Taylor's formula: Let
$$
I=int_0^1dfracmathrmdmathrmds[(1-s)g^prime(s)]mathrmds,
$$
which we compute in two ways. First, by FTC
$$
I=-g^prime(0).
$$
Second, by the product rule and linearity of integration,
$$
I=int_0^1-g^prime(s)mathrmds+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds=-g(1)+g(0)+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds.
$$
Minor appendix: As it stands, my proof tackles the case $m=1$; however, it is completely trivial to extend it (though it is not entirely clear how/if the constant suffers; this of course depends on your choices of norms on $mathbbR^n$ and $mathbbR^m$).



Philosophy: This problem is in any case 1-dimensional; the LHS is the first order Taylor polynomial with step $b-a$, so of course it gives an error $o(|b-a|^2)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
    – Mike
    Aug 20 at 15:46











  • $(a-b)$ is a vector
    – Sobolev
    Aug 20 at 15:49















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Recall Taylor's formula for $gcolon[0,1]rightarrowmathbbR^m$ twice differentiable
$$
g(1)=g(0)+g'(0)+int_0^1g^primeprime(s)(1-s)mathrmds;
$$
(I will prove this ad hoc bellow). Now apply this to the function $g(t):= f((1-t)a+tb)$ for $tin[0,1]$ to get your answer:



Answer: By the chain rule:
$$
f(b)=f(a)+f^prime(a)(b-a)+int_0^1(1-t)langle a-b,f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)ranglemathrmdt
$$
so that by the triangle inequality for integrals
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leq int_0^1 (1-t)|f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(b-a)||b-a|mathrmd t\
leq sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|int_0^1 (1-t)mathrmdt\
=frac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|
$$
where in the first inequality we applied Cauchy-Schwarz. Now it seems to me that one can get $frac12$ as the best constant here (clearly optimal if $n=1$), but the answer is, in any case, quite irrelevant as on finite dimensional spaces all norms are equivalent and you do not state clearly what is the norm on $mathbbR^ntimes n$ (i.e., where $f^primeprime$ sits). However, let's say that we work with Euclidean (square) norms only. Let $MinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Then, again by Cauchy-Schwarz,
$$
|Mx|^2=sum_i=1^n (ROW_jMcdot x)^2leq sum_i=1^n |ROW_jM|^2| x|^2=|M|^2|x|^2,
$$
so that we can substitute $M=f^primeprime(a)$, $x=b-a$ to get
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leqfrac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)||b-a|^2.
$$
Proof of Taylor's formula: Let
$$
I=int_0^1dfracmathrmdmathrmds[(1-s)g^prime(s)]mathrmds,
$$
which we compute in two ways. First, by FTC
$$
I=-g^prime(0).
$$
Second, by the product rule and linearity of integration,
$$
I=int_0^1-g^prime(s)mathrmds+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds=-g(1)+g(0)+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds.
$$
Minor appendix: As it stands, my proof tackles the case $m=1$; however, it is completely trivial to extend it (though it is not entirely clear how/if the constant suffers; this of course depends on your choices of norms on $mathbbR^n$ and $mathbbR^m$).



Philosophy: This problem is in any case 1-dimensional; the LHS is the first order Taylor polynomial with step $b-a$, so of course it gives an error $o(|b-a|^2)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
    – Mike
    Aug 20 at 15:46











  • $(a-b)$ is a vector
    – Sobolev
    Aug 20 at 15:49













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Recall Taylor's formula for $gcolon[0,1]rightarrowmathbbR^m$ twice differentiable
$$
g(1)=g(0)+g'(0)+int_0^1g^primeprime(s)(1-s)mathrmds;
$$
(I will prove this ad hoc bellow). Now apply this to the function $g(t):= f((1-t)a+tb)$ for $tin[0,1]$ to get your answer:



Answer: By the chain rule:
$$
f(b)=f(a)+f^prime(a)(b-a)+int_0^1(1-t)langle a-b,f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)ranglemathrmdt
$$
so that by the triangle inequality for integrals
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leq int_0^1 (1-t)|f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(b-a)||b-a|mathrmd t\
leq sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|int_0^1 (1-t)mathrmdt\
=frac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|
$$
where in the first inequality we applied Cauchy-Schwarz. Now it seems to me that one can get $frac12$ as the best constant here (clearly optimal if $n=1$), but the answer is, in any case, quite irrelevant as on finite dimensional spaces all norms are equivalent and you do not state clearly what is the norm on $mathbbR^ntimes n$ (i.e., where $f^primeprime$ sits). However, let's say that we work with Euclidean (square) norms only. Let $MinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Then, again by Cauchy-Schwarz,
$$
|Mx|^2=sum_i=1^n (ROW_jMcdot x)^2leq sum_i=1^n |ROW_jM|^2| x|^2=|M|^2|x|^2,
$$
so that we can substitute $M=f^primeprime(a)$, $x=b-a$ to get
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leqfrac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)||b-a|^2.
$$
Proof of Taylor's formula: Let
$$
I=int_0^1dfracmathrmdmathrmds[(1-s)g^prime(s)]mathrmds,
$$
which we compute in two ways. First, by FTC
$$
I=-g^prime(0).
$$
Second, by the product rule and linearity of integration,
$$
I=int_0^1-g^prime(s)mathrmds+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds=-g(1)+g(0)+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds.
$$
Minor appendix: As it stands, my proof tackles the case $m=1$; however, it is completely trivial to extend it (though it is not entirely clear how/if the constant suffers; this of course depends on your choices of norms on $mathbbR^n$ and $mathbbR^m$).



Philosophy: This problem is in any case 1-dimensional; the LHS is the first order Taylor polynomial with step $b-a$, so of course it gives an error $o(|b-a|^2)$.






share|cite|improve this answer














Recall Taylor's formula for $gcolon[0,1]rightarrowmathbbR^m$ twice differentiable
$$
g(1)=g(0)+g'(0)+int_0^1g^primeprime(s)(1-s)mathrmds;
$$
(I will prove this ad hoc bellow). Now apply this to the function $g(t):= f((1-t)a+tb)$ for $tin[0,1]$ to get your answer:



Answer: By the chain rule:
$$
f(b)=f(a)+f^prime(a)(b-a)+int_0^1(1-t)langle a-b,f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)ranglemathrmdt
$$
so that by the triangle inequality for integrals
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leq int_0^1 (1-t)|f^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(b-a)||b-a|mathrmd t\
leq sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|int_0^1 (1-t)mathrmdt\
=frac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)(b-a)||b-a|
$$
where in the first inequality we applied Cauchy-Schwarz. Now it seems to me that one can get $frac12$ as the best constant here (clearly optimal if $n=1$), but the answer is, in any case, quite irrelevant as on finite dimensional spaces all norms are equivalent and you do not state clearly what is the norm on $mathbbR^ntimes n$ (i.e., where $f^primeprime$ sits). However, let's say that we work with Euclidean (square) norms only. Let $MinmathbbR^ntimes n$ and $xinmathbbR^n$. Then, again by Cauchy-Schwarz,
$$
|Mx|^2=sum_i=1^n (ROW_jMcdot x)^2leq sum_i=1^n |ROW_jM|^2| x|^2=|M|^2|x|^2,
$$
so that we can substitute $M=f^primeprime(a)$, $x=b-a$ to get
$$
|f(b)-f(a)-f^prime(a)(b-a)|leqfrac12sup_xin[a,b]|f^primeprime(x)||b-a|^2.
$$
Proof of Taylor's formula: Let
$$
I=int_0^1dfracmathrmdmathrmds[(1-s)g^prime(s)]mathrmds,
$$
which we compute in two ways. First, by FTC
$$
I=-g^prime(0).
$$
Second, by the product rule and linearity of integration,
$$
I=int_0^1-g^prime(s)mathrmds+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds=-g(1)+g(0)+int_0^1(1-s)g^primeprime(s)mathrmds.
$$
Minor appendix: As it stands, my proof tackles the case $m=1$; however, it is completely trivial to extend it (though it is not entirely clear how/if the constant suffers; this of course depends on your choices of norms on $mathbbR^n$ and $mathbbR^m$).



Philosophy: This problem is in any case 1-dimensional; the LHS is the first order Taylor polynomial with step $b-a$, so of course it gives an error $o(|b-a|^2)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 20 at 15:49

























answered Aug 20 at 15:05









Sobolev

686




686











  • Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
    – Mike
    Aug 20 at 15:46











  • $(a-b)$ is a vector
    – Sobolev
    Aug 20 at 15:49

















  • Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
    – Mike
    Aug 20 at 15:46











  • $(a-b)$ is a vector
    – Sobolev
    Aug 20 at 15:49
















Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
– Mike
Aug 20 at 15:46





Sorry, if we differentiate beginalignf^prime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)endalign, won't we arrive at beginalignf^primeprime((1-t)a+tb)(a-b)^2?endalign
– Mike
Aug 20 at 15:46













$(a-b)$ is a vector
– Sobolev
Aug 20 at 15:49





$(a-b)$ is a vector
– Sobolev
Aug 20 at 15:49



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