Prob. 15, Sec. 5.1, in Bartle & Sherbert's INTRO TO REAL ANALYSIS: A bounded function on $(0, 1)$ having no limit as $x to 0$

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Here is Prob. 15, Sec. 5.1, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




Let $f colon (0, 1) to mathbbR$ be bounded but such that $lim_x to 0 f$ does not exist. Show that there are two sequences $left(x_nright)$ and $left(y_nright)$ in $(0, 1)$ such that $lim left( x_n right) = 0 = lim left( y_n right)$, but such that $lim left( f left(x_nright) right)$ and $lim left( f left(y_nright) right)$ exist but are not equal.




My Attempt:




For each $n in mathbbN$, let us put
$$ I_n colon= left( 0, frac1n right) = left x in mathbbR colon 0 < x < frac1n right, tag0 $$
and hence let us take
$$ alpha_n colon= inf f left( I_n right) qquad mbox and qquad beta_n colon= sup f left( I_n right). tag1 $$
Then as $I_n+1 subset I_n$, so we must have
$$ alpha_n leq alpha_n+1 leq beta_n+1 leq beta_n. tag2 $$
And, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$ such that $m < n$, we see from (2) that
$$ alpha_m leq alpha_m+1 leq cdots leq alpha_n leq beta_n, $$
and also
$$ alpha_n leq beta_n leq beta_n-1 leq cdots leq beta_m. $$
Hence we can conclude without any loss of generality that, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$, we have
$$ alpha_m leq beta_n. tag3 $$



Moreover, as our function $f$ is bounded on the open interval $(0, 1)$, so we must also have $$ -infty < inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) < +infty, tag4 $$
and in fact
$$ inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq alpha_n leq beta_n leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) tag5 $$
for all $n in mathbbN$.



Thus $left( alpha_n right)$ is a monotonically increasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from above in $mathbbR$, and $left( beta_n right)$ is a monotonically decreasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from below in $mathbbR$. Therefore both of these sequences are convergent in $mathbbR$. Let us put
$$ alpha colon= lim_n to infty alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta colon= lim_n to infty beta_n. tag6 $$
Then $$ alpha leq beta, tag7 $$
by virtue of (3) above.



For each $n in mathbbN$, as
$$ alpha_n + frac1n > alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < beta_n, $$
so (by the definition of the supremum and the infimum of a non-empty bounded subset of $mathbbR$) there exist real numbers $x_n$ and $y_n$ in $I_n$ such that
$$ alpha_n leq f left( x_n right) < alpha_n + frac1n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < f left( y_n right) leq beta_n. tag8 $$
[Refer to (0) and (1) above.]



Thus we have sequences $left( x_n right)$ and $left( y_n right)$ in the open interval $(0, 1)$ such that
$$ 0 < x_n < frac1n qquad mbox and qquad 0 < y_n < frac1n $$
for all $n in mathbbN$. Therefore by the sandwiching theorem we can conclude that both of these sequences converge to $0$. But from (6) and (8) together with the sandwiching theorem we can also conclude that

$$ lim_n to infty f left( x_n right) = alpha qquad mbox and qquad lim_n to infty f left( y_n right) = beta. $$




Is what I've done so far correct? If so, then how to show that our $alpha$ and $beta$ in (6) above are different?



Or, have I made a mistake anywhere in my reasoning?



Or, is there any other (and easier and more direct) way of proving this result?







share|cite|improve this question
























    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    Here is Prob. 15, Sec. 5.1, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




    Let $f colon (0, 1) to mathbbR$ be bounded but such that $lim_x to 0 f$ does not exist. Show that there are two sequences $left(x_nright)$ and $left(y_nright)$ in $(0, 1)$ such that $lim left( x_n right) = 0 = lim left( y_n right)$, but such that $lim left( f left(x_nright) right)$ and $lim left( f left(y_nright) right)$ exist but are not equal.




    My Attempt:




    For each $n in mathbbN$, let us put
    $$ I_n colon= left( 0, frac1n right) = left x in mathbbR colon 0 < x < frac1n right, tag0 $$
    and hence let us take
    $$ alpha_n colon= inf f left( I_n right) qquad mbox and qquad beta_n colon= sup f left( I_n right). tag1 $$
    Then as $I_n+1 subset I_n$, so we must have
    $$ alpha_n leq alpha_n+1 leq beta_n+1 leq beta_n. tag2 $$
    And, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$ such that $m < n$, we see from (2) that
    $$ alpha_m leq alpha_m+1 leq cdots leq alpha_n leq beta_n, $$
    and also
    $$ alpha_n leq beta_n leq beta_n-1 leq cdots leq beta_m. $$
    Hence we can conclude without any loss of generality that, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$, we have
    $$ alpha_m leq beta_n. tag3 $$



    Moreover, as our function $f$ is bounded on the open interval $(0, 1)$, so we must also have $$ -infty < inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) < +infty, tag4 $$
    and in fact
    $$ inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq alpha_n leq beta_n leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) tag5 $$
    for all $n in mathbbN$.



    Thus $left( alpha_n right)$ is a monotonically increasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from above in $mathbbR$, and $left( beta_n right)$ is a monotonically decreasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from below in $mathbbR$. Therefore both of these sequences are convergent in $mathbbR$. Let us put
    $$ alpha colon= lim_n to infty alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta colon= lim_n to infty beta_n. tag6 $$
    Then $$ alpha leq beta, tag7 $$
    by virtue of (3) above.



    For each $n in mathbbN$, as
    $$ alpha_n + frac1n > alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < beta_n, $$
    so (by the definition of the supremum and the infimum of a non-empty bounded subset of $mathbbR$) there exist real numbers $x_n$ and $y_n$ in $I_n$ such that
    $$ alpha_n leq f left( x_n right) < alpha_n + frac1n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < f left( y_n right) leq beta_n. tag8 $$
    [Refer to (0) and (1) above.]



    Thus we have sequences $left( x_n right)$ and $left( y_n right)$ in the open interval $(0, 1)$ such that
    $$ 0 < x_n < frac1n qquad mbox and qquad 0 < y_n < frac1n $$
    for all $n in mathbbN$. Therefore by the sandwiching theorem we can conclude that both of these sequences converge to $0$. But from (6) and (8) together with the sandwiching theorem we can also conclude that

    $$ lim_n to infty f left( x_n right) = alpha qquad mbox and qquad lim_n to infty f left( y_n right) = beta. $$




    Is what I've done so far correct? If so, then how to show that our $alpha$ and $beta$ in (6) above are different?



    Or, have I made a mistake anywhere in my reasoning?



    Or, is there any other (and easier and more direct) way of proving this result?







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      Here is Prob. 15, Sec. 5.1, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




      Let $f colon (0, 1) to mathbbR$ be bounded but such that $lim_x to 0 f$ does not exist. Show that there are two sequences $left(x_nright)$ and $left(y_nright)$ in $(0, 1)$ such that $lim left( x_n right) = 0 = lim left( y_n right)$, but such that $lim left( f left(x_nright) right)$ and $lim left( f left(y_nright) right)$ exist but are not equal.




      My Attempt:




      For each $n in mathbbN$, let us put
      $$ I_n colon= left( 0, frac1n right) = left x in mathbbR colon 0 < x < frac1n right, tag0 $$
      and hence let us take
      $$ alpha_n colon= inf f left( I_n right) qquad mbox and qquad beta_n colon= sup f left( I_n right). tag1 $$
      Then as $I_n+1 subset I_n$, so we must have
      $$ alpha_n leq alpha_n+1 leq beta_n+1 leq beta_n. tag2 $$
      And, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$ such that $m < n$, we see from (2) that
      $$ alpha_m leq alpha_m+1 leq cdots leq alpha_n leq beta_n, $$
      and also
      $$ alpha_n leq beta_n leq beta_n-1 leq cdots leq beta_m. $$
      Hence we can conclude without any loss of generality that, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$, we have
      $$ alpha_m leq beta_n. tag3 $$



      Moreover, as our function $f$ is bounded on the open interval $(0, 1)$, so we must also have $$ -infty < inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) < +infty, tag4 $$
      and in fact
      $$ inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq alpha_n leq beta_n leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) tag5 $$
      for all $n in mathbbN$.



      Thus $left( alpha_n right)$ is a monotonically increasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from above in $mathbbR$, and $left( beta_n right)$ is a monotonically decreasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from below in $mathbbR$. Therefore both of these sequences are convergent in $mathbbR$. Let us put
      $$ alpha colon= lim_n to infty alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta colon= lim_n to infty beta_n. tag6 $$
      Then $$ alpha leq beta, tag7 $$
      by virtue of (3) above.



      For each $n in mathbbN$, as
      $$ alpha_n + frac1n > alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < beta_n, $$
      so (by the definition of the supremum and the infimum of a non-empty bounded subset of $mathbbR$) there exist real numbers $x_n$ and $y_n$ in $I_n$ such that
      $$ alpha_n leq f left( x_n right) < alpha_n + frac1n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < f left( y_n right) leq beta_n. tag8 $$
      [Refer to (0) and (1) above.]



      Thus we have sequences $left( x_n right)$ and $left( y_n right)$ in the open interval $(0, 1)$ such that
      $$ 0 < x_n < frac1n qquad mbox and qquad 0 < y_n < frac1n $$
      for all $n in mathbbN$. Therefore by the sandwiching theorem we can conclude that both of these sequences converge to $0$. But from (6) and (8) together with the sandwiching theorem we can also conclude that

      $$ lim_n to infty f left( x_n right) = alpha qquad mbox and qquad lim_n to infty f left( y_n right) = beta. $$




      Is what I've done so far correct? If so, then how to show that our $alpha$ and $beta$ in (6) above are different?



      Or, have I made a mistake anywhere in my reasoning?



      Or, is there any other (and easier and more direct) way of proving this result?







      share|cite|improve this question












      Here is Prob. 15, Sec. 5.1, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




      Let $f colon (0, 1) to mathbbR$ be bounded but such that $lim_x to 0 f$ does not exist. Show that there are two sequences $left(x_nright)$ and $left(y_nright)$ in $(0, 1)$ such that $lim left( x_n right) = 0 = lim left( y_n right)$, but such that $lim left( f left(x_nright) right)$ and $lim left( f left(y_nright) right)$ exist but are not equal.




      My Attempt:




      For each $n in mathbbN$, let us put
      $$ I_n colon= left( 0, frac1n right) = left x in mathbbR colon 0 < x < frac1n right, tag0 $$
      and hence let us take
      $$ alpha_n colon= inf f left( I_n right) qquad mbox and qquad beta_n colon= sup f left( I_n right). tag1 $$
      Then as $I_n+1 subset I_n$, so we must have
      $$ alpha_n leq alpha_n+1 leq beta_n+1 leq beta_n. tag2 $$
      And, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$ such that $m < n$, we see from (2) that
      $$ alpha_m leq alpha_m+1 leq cdots leq alpha_n leq beta_n, $$
      and also
      $$ alpha_n leq beta_n leq beta_n-1 leq cdots leq beta_m. $$
      Hence we can conclude without any loss of generality that, for any natural numbers $m$ and $n$, we have
      $$ alpha_m leq beta_n. tag3 $$



      Moreover, as our function $f$ is bounded on the open interval $(0, 1)$, so we must also have $$ -infty < inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) < +infty, tag4 $$
      and in fact
      $$ inf f big( (0, 1) big) leq alpha_n leq beta_n leq sup f big( (0, 1) big) tag5 $$
      for all $n in mathbbN$.



      Thus $left( alpha_n right)$ is a monotonically increasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from above in $mathbbR$, and $left( beta_n right)$ is a monotonically decreasing sequence of real numbers which is also bounded from below in $mathbbR$. Therefore both of these sequences are convergent in $mathbbR$. Let us put
      $$ alpha colon= lim_n to infty alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta colon= lim_n to infty beta_n. tag6 $$
      Then $$ alpha leq beta, tag7 $$
      by virtue of (3) above.



      For each $n in mathbbN$, as
      $$ alpha_n + frac1n > alpha_n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < beta_n, $$
      so (by the definition of the supremum and the infimum of a non-empty bounded subset of $mathbbR$) there exist real numbers $x_n$ and $y_n$ in $I_n$ such that
      $$ alpha_n leq f left( x_n right) < alpha_n + frac1n qquad mbox and qquad beta_n - frac1n < f left( y_n right) leq beta_n. tag8 $$
      [Refer to (0) and (1) above.]



      Thus we have sequences $left( x_n right)$ and $left( y_n right)$ in the open interval $(0, 1)$ such that
      $$ 0 < x_n < frac1n qquad mbox and qquad 0 < y_n < frac1n $$
      for all $n in mathbbN$. Therefore by the sandwiching theorem we can conclude that both of these sequences converge to $0$. But from (6) and (8) together with the sandwiching theorem we can also conclude that

      $$ lim_n to infty f left( x_n right) = alpha qquad mbox and qquad lim_n to infty f left( y_n right) = beta. $$




      Is what I've done so far correct? If so, then how to show that our $alpha$ and $beta$ in (6) above are different?



      Or, have I made a mistake anywhere in my reasoning?



      Or, is there any other (and easier and more direct) way of proving this result?









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 11 at 21:23









      Saaqib Mahmood

      7,18042169




      7,18042169




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          What you did is correct.



          In order to show that $alphaneqbeta$, suppose otherwise. That is, suppose that $alpha=beta$. I will prove that $lim_xto0f(x)=alpha(=beta)$, thereby reaching a contradiction. Take $varepsilon>0$. Now, take $ninmathbb N$ such that $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$; it must exist, since $lim_ntoinftybeta_n-alpha_n=beta-alpha=0$. But then, by the definition of $alpha_n$ and $beta_n$,$$xinleft(0,frac1nright)impliesalpha_nleqslant f(x)leqslantbeta_nimpliesbigl|f(x)-alphabigr|<varepsilon,$$since both $f(x)$ and $alpha$ belong to $(alpha_n,beta_n)$ and $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );








             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2879789%2fprob-15-sec-5-1-in-bartle-sherberts-intro-to-real-analysis-a-bounded-fun%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted










            What you did is correct.



            In order to show that $alphaneqbeta$, suppose otherwise. That is, suppose that $alpha=beta$. I will prove that $lim_xto0f(x)=alpha(=beta)$, thereby reaching a contradiction. Take $varepsilon>0$. Now, take $ninmathbb N$ such that $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$; it must exist, since $lim_ntoinftybeta_n-alpha_n=beta-alpha=0$. But then, by the definition of $alpha_n$ and $beta_n$,$$xinleft(0,frac1nright)impliesalpha_nleqslant f(x)leqslantbeta_nimpliesbigl|f(x)-alphabigr|<varepsilon,$$since both $f(x)$ and $alpha$ belong to $(alpha_n,beta_n)$ and $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted










              What you did is correct.



              In order to show that $alphaneqbeta$, suppose otherwise. That is, suppose that $alpha=beta$. I will prove that $lim_xto0f(x)=alpha(=beta)$, thereby reaching a contradiction. Take $varepsilon>0$. Now, take $ninmathbb N$ such that $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$; it must exist, since $lim_ntoinftybeta_n-alpha_n=beta-alpha=0$. But then, by the definition of $alpha_n$ and $beta_n$,$$xinleft(0,frac1nright)impliesalpha_nleqslant f(x)leqslantbeta_nimpliesbigl|f(x)-alphabigr|<varepsilon,$$since both $f(x)$ and $alpha$ belong to $(alpha_n,beta_n)$ and $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted






                What you did is correct.



                In order to show that $alphaneqbeta$, suppose otherwise. That is, suppose that $alpha=beta$. I will prove that $lim_xto0f(x)=alpha(=beta)$, thereby reaching a contradiction. Take $varepsilon>0$. Now, take $ninmathbb N$ such that $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$; it must exist, since $lim_ntoinftybeta_n-alpha_n=beta-alpha=0$. But then, by the definition of $alpha_n$ and $beta_n$,$$xinleft(0,frac1nright)impliesalpha_nleqslant f(x)leqslantbeta_nimpliesbigl|f(x)-alphabigr|<varepsilon,$$since both $f(x)$ and $alpha$ belong to $(alpha_n,beta_n)$ and $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                What you did is correct.



                In order to show that $alphaneqbeta$, suppose otherwise. That is, suppose that $alpha=beta$. I will prove that $lim_xto0f(x)=alpha(=beta)$, thereby reaching a contradiction. Take $varepsilon>0$. Now, take $ninmathbb N$ such that $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$; it must exist, since $lim_ntoinftybeta_n-alpha_n=beta-alpha=0$. But then, by the definition of $alpha_n$ and $beta_n$,$$xinleft(0,frac1nright)impliesalpha_nleqslant f(x)leqslantbeta_nimpliesbigl|f(x)-alphabigr|<varepsilon,$$since both $f(x)$ and $alpha$ belong to $(alpha_n,beta_n)$ and $beta_n-alpha_n<varepsilon$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Aug 11 at 21:40









                José Carlos Santos

                116k1699178




                116k1699178






















                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded


























                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2879789%2fprob-15-sec-5-1-in-bartle-sherberts-intro-to-real-analysis-a-bounded-fun%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    這個網誌中的熱門文章

                    tkz-euclide: tkzDrawCircle[R] not working

                    How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

                    1st Magritte Awards