For which $f in mathbbC[x,y]$, $fy-lambda$ is irreducible in $mathbbC[x,y]$ for infinitely many $mathbbC ni lambda$'s

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Let $f=f(x,y) in mathbbC[x,y]$,
and for every $lambda in mathbbC$, denote $F_lambda:=fy-lambda$.




Is it possible to characterize all $f in mathbbC[x,y]$ such that $F_lambda$ is irreducible in $mathbbC[x,y]$ for infinitely many $mathbbC ni lambda$'s?




Example: If I am not wrong, $f=x$ is such that $F_lambda=xy-lambda$ is irreducible for every $lambda in mathbbC-0$.



See also this question concerning irreducibility of a polynomial in two variables.



Any hints and comments are welcome!







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  • To go just a little further with your example, I think any $f$ which does not depend on $y$ qualifies. And any non-constant $f$ that does not depend on $x$ does not qualify, since $F_lambda$ is then a polynomial in $y$ only with degree at least 2, and therefore always factors.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:13










  • Thanks for your comment. Please, by '$f$ which does not depend on $y$' did you mean that $f$ and $y$ are algebraically independent over $mathbbC$? (which is equivalent to saying that $f_x in mathbbC[x,y]-0$).
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:21











  • I mean $f_y = 0$, or given $f=sum a_ij x^i y^j$, we have $j>0 rightarrow a_ij=0$.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:24










  • I am not sure I understand; $f_y=0$ implies that $f in mathbbC[x]$, and your second condition also says that $f in mathbbC[x]$?
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:34










  • Yes, I just put it two different ways to try to be clear.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 14:50














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $f=f(x,y) in mathbbC[x,y]$,
and for every $lambda in mathbbC$, denote $F_lambda:=fy-lambda$.




Is it possible to characterize all $f in mathbbC[x,y]$ such that $F_lambda$ is irreducible in $mathbbC[x,y]$ for infinitely many $mathbbC ni lambda$'s?




Example: If I am not wrong, $f=x$ is such that $F_lambda=xy-lambda$ is irreducible for every $lambda in mathbbC-0$.



See also this question concerning irreducibility of a polynomial in two variables.



Any hints and comments are welcome!







share|cite|improve this question






















  • To go just a little further with your example, I think any $f$ which does not depend on $y$ qualifies. And any non-constant $f$ that does not depend on $x$ does not qualify, since $F_lambda$ is then a polynomial in $y$ only with degree at least 2, and therefore always factors.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:13










  • Thanks for your comment. Please, by '$f$ which does not depend on $y$' did you mean that $f$ and $y$ are algebraically independent over $mathbbC$? (which is equivalent to saying that $f_x in mathbbC[x,y]-0$).
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:21











  • I mean $f_y = 0$, or given $f=sum a_ij x^i y^j$, we have $j>0 rightarrow a_ij=0$.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:24










  • I am not sure I understand; $f_y=0$ implies that $f in mathbbC[x]$, and your second condition also says that $f in mathbbC[x]$?
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:34










  • Yes, I just put it two different ways to try to be clear.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 14:50












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $f=f(x,y) in mathbbC[x,y]$,
and for every $lambda in mathbbC$, denote $F_lambda:=fy-lambda$.




Is it possible to characterize all $f in mathbbC[x,y]$ such that $F_lambda$ is irreducible in $mathbbC[x,y]$ for infinitely many $mathbbC ni lambda$'s?




Example: If I am not wrong, $f=x$ is such that $F_lambda=xy-lambda$ is irreducible for every $lambda in mathbbC-0$.



See also this question concerning irreducibility of a polynomial in two variables.



Any hints and comments are welcome!







share|cite|improve this question














Let $f=f(x,y) in mathbbC[x,y]$,
and for every $lambda in mathbbC$, denote $F_lambda:=fy-lambda$.




Is it possible to characterize all $f in mathbbC[x,y]$ such that $F_lambda$ is irreducible in $mathbbC[x,y]$ for infinitely many $mathbbC ni lambda$'s?




Example: If I am not wrong, $f=x$ is such that $F_lambda=xy-lambda$ is irreducible for every $lambda in mathbbC-0$.



See also this question concerning irreducibility of a polynomial in two variables.



Any hints and comments are welcome!









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 12 at 12:26

























asked Aug 12 at 4:52









user237522

1,8141617




1,8141617











  • To go just a little further with your example, I think any $f$ which does not depend on $y$ qualifies. And any non-constant $f$ that does not depend on $x$ does not qualify, since $F_lambda$ is then a polynomial in $y$ only with degree at least 2, and therefore always factors.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:13










  • Thanks for your comment. Please, by '$f$ which does not depend on $y$' did you mean that $f$ and $y$ are algebraically independent over $mathbbC$? (which is equivalent to saying that $f_x in mathbbC[x,y]-0$).
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:21











  • I mean $f_y = 0$, or given $f=sum a_ij x^i y^j$, we have $j>0 rightarrow a_ij=0$.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:24










  • I am not sure I understand; $f_y=0$ implies that $f in mathbbC[x]$, and your second condition also says that $f in mathbbC[x]$?
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:34










  • Yes, I just put it two different ways to try to be clear.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 14:50
















  • To go just a little further with your example, I think any $f$ which does not depend on $y$ qualifies. And any non-constant $f$ that does not depend on $x$ does not qualify, since $F_lambda$ is then a polynomial in $y$ only with degree at least 2, and therefore always factors.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:13










  • Thanks for your comment. Please, by '$f$ which does not depend on $y$' did you mean that $f$ and $y$ are algebraically independent over $mathbbC$? (which is equivalent to saying that $f_x in mathbbC[x,y]-0$).
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:21











  • I mean $f_y = 0$, or given $f=sum a_ij x^i y^j$, we have $j>0 rightarrow a_ij=0$.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 10:24










  • I am not sure I understand; $f_y=0$ implies that $f in mathbbC[x]$, and your second condition also says that $f in mathbbC[x]$?
    – user237522
    Aug 12 at 10:34










  • Yes, I just put it two different ways to try to be clear.
    – aschepler
    Aug 12 at 14:50















To go just a little further with your example, I think any $f$ which does not depend on $y$ qualifies. And any non-constant $f$ that does not depend on $x$ does not qualify, since $F_lambda$ is then a polynomial in $y$ only with degree at least 2, and therefore always factors.
– aschepler
Aug 12 at 10:13




To go just a little further with your example, I think any $f$ which does not depend on $y$ qualifies. And any non-constant $f$ that does not depend on $x$ does not qualify, since $F_lambda$ is then a polynomial in $y$ only with degree at least 2, and therefore always factors.
– aschepler
Aug 12 at 10:13












Thanks for your comment. Please, by '$f$ which does not depend on $y$' did you mean that $f$ and $y$ are algebraically independent over $mathbbC$? (which is equivalent to saying that $f_x in mathbbC[x,y]-0$).
– user237522
Aug 12 at 10:21





Thanks for your comment. Please, by '$f$ which does not depend on $y$' did you mean that $f$ and $y$ are algebraically independent over $mathbbC$? (which is equivalent to saying that $f_x in mathbbC[x,y]-0$).
– user237522
Aug 12 at 10:21













I mean $f_y = 0$, or given $f=sum a_ij x^i y^j$, we have $j>0 rightarrow a_ij=0$.
– aschepler
Aug 12 at 10:24




I mean $f_y = 0$, or given $f=sum a_ij x^i y^j$, we have $j>0 rightarrow a_ij=0$.
– aschepler
Aug 12 at 10:24












I am not sure I understand; $f_y=0$ implies that $f in mathbbC[x]$, and your second condition also says that $f in mathbbC[x]$?
– user237522
Aug 12 at 10:34




I am not sure I understand; $f_y=0$ implies that $f in mathbbC[x]$, and your second condition also says that $f in mathbbC[x]$?
– user237522
Aug 12 at 10:34












Yes, I just put it two different ways to try to be clear.
– aschepler
Aug 12 at 14:50




Yes, I just put it two different ways to try to be clear.
– aschepler
Aug 12 at 14:50















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