When âIf $A$ is true then $B$ is trueâ, is it valid to assert that âIf $B$ is false, $A$ must also be falseâ?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
If it is given that:
"People that ride buses, also ride planes"
then is the statement
"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"
necessarily true?
I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.
It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.
logic propositional-calculus logic-translation
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
If it is given that:
"People that ride buses, also ride planes"
then is the statement
"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"
necessarily true?
I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.
It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.
logic propositional-calculus logic-translation
It is valid. Write out a truth table.
â Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34
oh man.. im really worried about my brain
â user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58
1
Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
â Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59
Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
â Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
If it is given that:
"People that ride buses, also ride planes"
then is the statement
"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"
necessarily true?
I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.
It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.
logic propositional-calculus logic-translation
If it is given that:
"People that ride buses, also ride planes"
then is the statement
"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"
necessarily true?
I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.
It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.
logic propositional-calculus logic-translation
edited Aug 12 at 20:24
Rodrigo de Azevedo
12.6k41751
12.6k41751
asked Aug 12 at 5:27
user3801230
1183
1183
It is valid. Write out a truth table.
â Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34
oh man.. im really worried about my brain
â user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58
1
Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
â Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59
Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
â Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12
add a comment |Â
It is valid. Write out a truth table.
â Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34
oh man.. im really worried about my brain
â user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58
1
Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
â Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59
Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
â Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12
It is valid. Write out a truth table.
â Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34
It is valid. Write out a truth table.
â Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34
oh man.. im really worried about my brain
â user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58
oh man.. im really worried about my brain
â user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58
1
1
Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
â Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59
Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
â Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59
Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
â Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12
Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
â Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The difference lies in the logical statement
If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.
Which is distinct from
(The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.
You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like
It is raining implies it is cloudy.
Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.
Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being
The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).
If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.
When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:
People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
$$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$
Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say
$$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$
in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.
Notice that when you interpret $A$ as
$$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$
in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.
Then yes the conclusion
$$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$
is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
What you are asking is does:
A â¹ B (A implies B)
mean
Not B â¹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?
The answer is yes.
In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.
The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.
Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"
and
Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"
Here
A â¹ B
However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.
The famous one in Maths is the proof of the âÂÂ2
cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie âÂÂ2
is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.
For contradition assume:
A = "âÂÂ2 is rational"
If that is true, then
B = "âÂÂ2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"
So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if âÂÂ2 = a/b
, then both a
and b
have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.
But from what we have said above:
If A â¹ B, then Not B â¹ Not A
So we have established that Not A
is true, ie âÂÂ2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The difference lies in the logical statement
If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.
Which is distinct from
(The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.
You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like
It is raining implies it is cloudy.
Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.
Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being
The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).
If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The difference lies in the logical statement
If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.
Which is distinct from
(The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.
You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like
It is raining implies it is cloudy.
Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.
Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being
The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).
If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The difference lies in the logical statement
If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.
Which is distinct from
(The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.
You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like
It is raining implies it is cloudy.
Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.
Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being
The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).
If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.
The difference lies in the logical statement
If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.
Which is distinct from
(The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.
You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like
It is raining implies it is cloudy.
Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.
Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being
The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).
If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.
edited Aug 12 at 5:45
answered Aug 12 at 5:35
Chickenmancer
3,021622
3,021622
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.
When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:
People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
$$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$
Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say
$$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$
in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.
Notice that when you interpret $A$ as
$$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$
in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.
Then yes the conclusion
$$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$
is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.
When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:
People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
$$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$
Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say
$$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$
in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.
Notice that when you interpret $A$ as
$$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$
in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.
Then yes the conclusion
$$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$
is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.
When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:
People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
$$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$
Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say
$$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$
in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.
Notice that when you interpret $A$ as
$$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$
in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.
Then yes the conclusion
$$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$
is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.
I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.
When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:
People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
$$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$
Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say
$$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$
in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.
Notice that when you interpret $A$ as
$$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$
in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.
Then yes the conclusion
$$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$
is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.
edited Aug 12 at 6:41
answered Aug 12 at 5:59
Nong
1,1521520
1,1521520
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
add a comment |Â
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
â Max
Aug 12 at 7:35
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
What you are asking is does:
A â¹ B (A implies B)
mean
Not B â¹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?
The answer is yes.
In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.
The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.
Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"
and
Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"
Here
A â¹ B
However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.
The famous one in Maths is the proof of the âÂÂ2
cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie âÂÂ2
is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.
For contradition assume:
A = "âÂÂ2 is rational"
If that is true, then
B = "âÂÂ2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"
So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if âÂÂ2 = a/b
, then both a
and b
have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.
But from what we have said above:
If A â¹ B, then Not B â¹ Not A
So we have established that Not A
is true, ie âÂÂ2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
What you are asking is does:
A â¹ B (A implies B)
mean
Not B â¹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?
The answer is yes.
In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.
The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.
Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"
and
Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"
Here
A â¹ B
However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.
The famous one in Maths is the proof of the âÂÂ2
cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie âÂÂ2
is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.
For contradition assume:
A = "âÂÂ2 is rational"
If that is true, then
B = "âÂÂ2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"
So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if âÂÂ2 = a/b
, then both a
and b
have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.
But from what we have said above:
If A â¹ B, then Not B â¹ Not A
So we have established that Not A
is true, ie âÂÂ2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
What you are asking is does:
A â¹ B (A implies B)
mean
Not B â¹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?
The answer is yes.
In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.
The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.
Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"
and
Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"
Here
A â¹ B
However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.
The famous one in Maths is the proof of the âÂÂ2
cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie âÂÂ2
is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.
For contradition assume:
A = "âÂÂ2 is rational"
If that is true, then
B = "âÂÂ2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"
So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if âÂÂ2 = a/b
, then both a
and b
have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.
But from what we have said above:
If A â¹ B, then Not B â¹ Not A
So we have established that Not A
is true, ie âÂÂ2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.
What you are asking is does:
A â¹ B (A implies B)
mean
Not B â¹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?
The answer is yes.
In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.
The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.
Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"
and
Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"
Here
A â¹ B
However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.
The famous one in Maths is the proof of the âÂÂ2
cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie âÂÂ2
is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.
For contradition assume:
A = "âÂÂ2 is rational"
If that is true, then
B = "âÂÂ2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"
So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if âÂÂ2 = a/b
, then both a
and b
have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.
But from what we have said above:
If A â¹ B, then Not B â¹ Not A
So we have established that Not A
is true, ie âÂÂ2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.
answered Aug 12 at 9:45
Rewind
101
101
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
add a comment |Â
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
â Adam
Aug 12 at 10:34
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A â¹ Not B.
â Rewind
Aug 12 at 19:21
add a comment |Â
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It is valid. Write out a truth table.
â Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34
oh man.. im really worried about my brain
â user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58
1
Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
â Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59
Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
â Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12