When “If $A$ is true then $B$ is true”, is it valid to assert that “If $B$ is false, $A$ must also be false”?

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up vote
3
down vote

favorite












If it is given that:




"People that ride buses, also ride planes"




then is the statement




"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"




necessarily true?



I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.



It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.







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  • It is valid. Write out a truth table.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 12 at 5:34










  • oh man.. im really worried about my brain
    – user3801230
    Aug 12 at 5:58






  • 1




    Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
    – Chickenmancer
    Aug 12 at 5:59










  • Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
    – Nong
    Aug 12 at 6:12














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












If it is given that:




"People that ride buses, also ride planes"




then is the statement




"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"




necessarily true?



I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.



It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • It is valid. Write out a truth table.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 12 at 5:34










  • oh man.. im really worried about my brain
    – user3801230
    Aug 12 at 5:58






  • 1




    Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
    – Chickenmancer
    Aug 12 at 5:59










  • Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
    – Nong
    Aug 12 at 6:12












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











If it is given that:




"People that ride buses, also ride planes"




then is the statement




"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"




necessarily true?



I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.



It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.







share|cite|improve this question














If it is given that:




"People that ride buses, also ride planes"




then is the statement




"people that don't ride planes, also don't ride buses"




necessarily true?



I don't think so, but the explanation to a problem in textbook I'm using uses that as logical proof to the answer provided.



It is based on the rule (according to this textbook) that, if this is true : ( if $A$ is true, then $B$ is also true), then it follows that if $B$ is false, then $A$ must also be false.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 12 at 20:24









Rodrigo de Azevedo

12.6k41751




12.6k41751










asked Aug 12 at 5:27









user3801230

1183




1183











  • It is valid. Write out a truth table.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 12 at 5:34










  • oh man.. im really worried about my brain
    – user3801230
    Aug 12 at 5:58






  • 1




    Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
    – Chickenmancer
    Aug 12 at 5:59










  • Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
    – Nong
    Aug 12 at 6:12
















  • It is valid. Write out a truth table.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 12 at 5:34










  • oh man.. im really worried about my brain
    – user3801230
    Aug 12 at 5:58






  • 1




    Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
    – Chickenmancer
    Aug 12 at 5:59










  • Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
    – Nong
    Aug 12 at 6:12















It is valid. Write out a truth table.
– Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34




It is valid. Write out a truth table.
– Theoretical Economist
Aug 12 at 5:34












oh man.. im really worried about my brain
– user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58




oh man.. im really worried about my brain
– user3801230
Aug 12 at 5:58




1




1




Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
– Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59




Your brain is fine. English isn't an effective language to describe things logically without making lots of assumptions.
– Chickenmancer
Aug 12 at 5:59












Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
– Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12




Please take a look of my answer, because your initial idea is correct but the tool you used is not powerful enough.
– Nong
Aug 12 at 6:12










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










The difference lies in the logical statement




If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.




Which is distinct from




(The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.




You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like




It is raining implies it is cloudy.




Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.



Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being




The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).




If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.



    When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:



    People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
    $$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$



    Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say



    $$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$



    in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.




    Notice that when you interpret $A$ as



    $$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$



    in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.



    Then yes the conclusion



    $$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$



    is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
      – Max
      Aug 12 at 7:35

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    What you are asking is does:



    A ⟹ B (A implies B)


    mean



    Not B ⟹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?


    The answer is yes.



    In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.



    The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.



    Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"


    and



    Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"


    Here



    A ⟹ B


    However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.



    The famous one in Maths is the proof of the √2 cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie √2 is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.



    For contradition assume:



     A = "√2 is rational"


    If that is true, then



     B = "√2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"


    So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if √2 = a/b, then both a and b have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.



    But from what we have said above:



    If A ⟹ B, then Not B ⟹ Not A


    So we have established that Not A is true, ie √2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
      – Adam
      Aug 12 at 10:34










    • Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
      – Rewind
      Aug 12 at 19:21










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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    The difference lies in the logical statement




    If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.




    Which is distinct from




    (The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.




    You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like




    It is raining implies it is cloudy.




    Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.



    Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being




    The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).




    If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      The difference lies in the logical statement




      If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.




      Which is distinct from




      (The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.




      You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like




      It is raining implies it is cloudy.




      Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.



      Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being




      The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).




      If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        The difference lies in the logical statement




        If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.




        Which is distinct from




        (The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.




        You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like




        It is raining implies it is cloudy.




        Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.



        Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being




        The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).




        If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        The difference lies in the logical statement




        If $A$ is true, then $B$ is true.




        Which is distinct from




        (The truth value of) $A$ implies $B$.




        You need to go beyond the examples you can provide with colloquial English, since a statement like




        It is raining implies it is cloudy.




        Has an exception, since "sun showers" exist.



        Now, you're meant to regard $A implies B$ as an agreement. The agreement being




        The statement $A rightarrow B$ is true, and so is the statement $A,$ then we agree that $B$ is true (this is modus ponens).




        If you accept this statement, then you can derive the contrapositive: which is that $A implies B$ is true precisely when $neg B implies neg A$ is true.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Aug 12 at 5:45

























        answered Aug 12 at 5:35









        Chickenmancer

        3,021622




        3,021622




















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.



            When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:



            People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
            $$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$



            Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say



            $$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$



            in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.




            Notice that when you interpret $A$ as



            $$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$



            in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.



            Then yes the conclusion



            $$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$



            is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
              – Max
              Aug 12 at 7:35














            up vote
            2
            down vote













            I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.



            When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:



            People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
            $$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$



            Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say



            $$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$



            in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.




            Notice that when you interpret $A$ as



            $$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$



            in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.



            Then yes the conclusion



            $$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$



            is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
              – Max
              Aug 12 at 7:35












            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.



            When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:



            People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
            $$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$



            Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say



            $$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$



            in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.




            Notice that when you interpret $A$ as



            $$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$



            in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.



            Then yes the conclusion



            $$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$



            is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            I think the problem OP has is that the statement given is about propositional(zero-order) logic but to solve his confusion he will need predicate(first-order) logic, i.e. both "people"s in the statement means all people by the author. Because clearly there are some people, in real world, that don't ride planes, but ride buses. You may take a look about predicate logic.



            When you say people, you should be clear about what you meant:



            People that ride buses, also ride planes: Do you meant all people? If this is the case then you're saying
            $$forall x, P(x)to Q(x), x=textrmpeople.$$



            Since there are some people in the world that "don't ride planes, but ride buses" but that's your another problem: When someone say



            $$textrmIf A textrmthen B,$$



            in your case $A:$ (all) people that ride buses. "$A$" don't have to be true in read world. What this logical statement(assumed true) means is that $B$ must be true when I suppose $A$ true.




            Notice that when you interpret $A$ as



            $$exists x, P(x)to Q(x),$$



            in your case $P(people)=$ some people ride buses; $Q(people)=$ they(same people) also ride planes.



            Then yes the conclusion



            $$forall x, lnot Q(x)to lnot P(x), (textrmwhich is equiv(forall x, P(x)to Q(x))),$$



            is false because this is stronger then the original one. You implicitly changed $exists$(exists) to $forall$(for all) in your brain, but that's fine because when we doubt a thing we will be trying to find the counter example implicitly. That's why we extend the propositional logic to predicate logic, because the latter is more precise.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 12 at 6:41

























            answered Aug 12 at 5:59









            Nong

            1,1521520




            1,1521520











            • There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
              – Max
              Aug 12 at 7:35
















            • There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
              – Max
              Aug 12 at 7:35















            There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
            – Max
            Aug 12 at 7:35




            There's no actual need for predicate logic, because everything happens after the quantifier
            – Max
            Aug 12 at 7:35










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            What you are asking is does:



            A ⟹ B (A implies B)


            mean



            Not B ⟹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?


            The answer is yes.



            In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.



            The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.



            Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"


            and



            Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"


            Here



            A ⟹ B


            However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.



            The famous one in Maths is the proof of the √2 cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie √2 is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.



            For contradition assume:



             A = "√2 is rational"


            If that is true, then



             B = "√2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"


            So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if √2 = a/b, then both a and b have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.



            But from what we have said above:



            If A ⟹ B, then Not B ⟹ Not A


            So we have established that Not A is true, ie √2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
              – Adam
              Aug 12 at 10:34










            • Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
              – Rewind
              Aug 12 at 19:21














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            What you are asking is does:



            A ⟹ B (A implies B)


            mean



            Not B ⟹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?


            The answer is yes.



            In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.



            The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.



            Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"


            and



            Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"


            Here



            A ⟹ B


            However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.



            The famous one in Maths is the proof of the √2 cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie √2 is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.



            For contradition assume:



             A = "√2 is rational"


            If that is true, then



             B = "√2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"


            So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if √2 = a/b, then both a and b have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.



            But from what we have said above:



            If A ⟹ B, then Not B ⟹ Not A


            So we have established that Not A is true, ie √2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
              – Adam
              Aug 12 at 10:34










            • Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
              – Rewind
              Aug 12 at 19:21












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            What you are asking is does:



            A ⟹ B (A implies B)


            mean



            Not B ⟹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?


            The answer is yes.



            In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.



            The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.



            Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"


            and



            Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"


            Here



            A ⟹ B


            However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.



            The famous one in Maths is the proof of the √2 cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie √2 is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.



            For contradition assume:



             A = "√2 is rational"


            If that is true, then



             B = "√2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"


            So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if √2 = a/b, then both a and b have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.



            But from what we have said above:



            If A ⟹ B, then Not B ⟹ Not A


            So we have established that Not A is true, ie √2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            What you are asking is does:



            A ⟹ B (A implies B)


            mean



            Not B ⟹ Not A (The converse of B implies the converse of A)?


            The answer is yes.



            In fact this is the basis of what is known as a Proof By Contradition in Maths.



            The way I explain it to my A-Level students (18 year old Mathematicians in the UK) that meet this for the first time is with the following.



            Let Statement A = "It is 12th of August 2018"


            and



            Let Statement B = "It is a Sunday"


            Here



            A ⟹ B


            However, if it is not a Sunday (ie Not B, or the converse of B) is true, then we do not know what date it is with an absolute certainty, but we can say with absolute certainty it is NOT the 12th of August 2018, (ie we can say it is Not A, or we can say it is definitely the converse of statement A). It might be the 11th, it might be the 10th, but it definitely is not the 12th.



            The famous one in Maths is the proof of the √2 cannot be expressed exactly as a fraction, ie √2 is irrational. This is done by a Proof by Contradition.



            For contradition assume:



             A = "√2 is rational"


            If that is true, then



             B = "√2 = a/b, where a and b are whole numbers, and 'a' and 'b' have no factors"


            So we assume B is true and with a bit of basic maths we find if √2 = a/b, then both a and b have a factor of 2. So we have establish NOT B.



            But from what we have said above:



            If A ⟹ B, then Not B ⟹ Not A


            So we have established that Not A is true, ie √2 is irrational, ie cannot be expressed as a fraction.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Aug 12 at 9:45









            Rewind

            101




            101











            • Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
              – Adam
              Aug 12 at 10:34










            • Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
              – Rewind
              Aug 12 at 19:21
















            • Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
              – Adam
              Aug 12 at 10:34










            • Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
              – Rewind
              Aug 12 at 19:21















            Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
            – Adam
            Aug 12 at 10:34




            Not A -> Not B is called the contrapositive.
            – Adam
            Aug 12 at 10:34












            Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
            – Rewind
            Aug 12 at 19:21




            Have I written something wrong somewhere? I cannot see where I have Not A ⟹ Not B.
            – Rewind
            Aug 12 at 19:21












             

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