Do binary equalizers imply all finite equalizers

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If a category $mathcalC$ has all binary equalizers, does it necessarily have all finite equalizers?



If we take $mathcalC=Sets$ then we can always take the intersection of two equalizers with its inclusion mapping and at worst end up with the empty set and its trivial inclusion mapping, and more generally any category with an initial object has all equalizers trivially, but it isn't clear to me that binary equalizers in a vacuum yield all finite equalizers.







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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    If a category $mathcalC$ has all binary equalizers, does it necessarily have all finite equalizers?



    If we take $mathcalC=Sets$ then we can always take the intersection of two equalizers with its inclusion mapping and at worst end up with the empty set and its trivial inclusion mapping, and more generally any category with an initial object has all equalizers trivially, but it isn't clear to me that binary equalizers in a vacuum yield all finite equalizers.







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      If a category $mathcalC$ has all binary equalizers, does it necessarily have all finite equalizers?



      If we take $mathcalC=Sets$ then we can always take the intersection of two equalizers with its inclusion mapping and at worst end up with the empty set and its trivial inclusion mapping, and more generally any category with an initial object has all equalizers trivially, but it isn't clear to me that binary equalizers in a vacuum yield all finite equalizers.







      share|cite|improve this question












      If a category $mathcalC$ has all binary equalizers, does it necessarily have all finite equalizers?



      If we take $mathcalC=Sets$ then we can always take the intersection of two equalizers with its inclusion mapping and at worst end up with the empty set and its trivial inclusion mapping, and more generally any category with an initial object has all equalizers trivially, but it isn't clear to me that binary equalizers in a vacuum yield all finite equalizers.









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      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 12 at 5:12









      Alec Rhea

      703515




      703515




















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          Let's show how to get $(k+1)$-fold equalisers from binary equalisers and
          $k$-fold equalisers. Let $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$ be parallel arrows.
          Let $g$ be an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k$ and $h$ an
          equaliser of $f_1circ g$ and $f_k+1circ g$. Then $gcirc h$ is
          an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
            – Alec Rhea
            Aug 12 at 6:57







          • 1




            Quite likely$ $!
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Aug 12 at 7:00











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's show how to get $(k+1)$-fold equalisers from binary equalisers and
          $k$-fold equalisers. Let $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$ be parallel arrows.
          Let $g$ be an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k$ and $h$ an
          equaliser of $f_1circ g$ and $f_k+1circ g$. Then $gcirc h$ is
          an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
            – Alec Rhea
            Aug 12 at 6:57







          • 1




            Quite likely$ $!
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Aug 12 at 7:00















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's show how to get $(k+1)$-fold equalisers from binary equalisers and
          $k$-fold equalisers. Let $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$ be parallel arrows.
          Let $g$ be an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k$ and $h$ an
          equaliser of $f_1circ g$ and $f_k+1circ g$. Then $gcirc h$ is
          an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
            – Alec Rhea
            Aug 12 at 6:57







          • 1




            Quite likely$ $!
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Aug 12 at 7:00













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Let's show how to get $(k+1)$-fold equalisers from binary equalisers and
          $k$-fold equalisers. Let $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$ be parallel arrows.
          Let $g$ be an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k$ and $h$ an
          equaliser of $f_1circ g$ and $f_k+1circ g$. Then $gcirc h$ is
          an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let's show how to get $(k+1)$-fold equalisers from binary equalisers and
          $k$-fold equalisers. Let $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$ be parallel arrows.
          Let $g$ be an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k$ and $h$ an
          equaliser of $f_1circ g$ and $f_k+1circ g$. Then $gcirc h$ is
          an equaliser of $f_1,ldots,f_k+1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 12 at 7:00

























          answered Aug 12 at 6:42









          Lord Shark the Unknown

          86.7k952112




          86.7k952112











          • Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
            – Alec Rhea
            Aug 12 at 6:57







          • 1




            Quite likely$ $!
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Aug 12 at 7:00

















          • Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
            – Alec Rhea
            Aug 12 at 6:57







          • 1




            Quite likely$ $!
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Aug 12 at 7:00
















          Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
          – Alec Rhea
          Aug 12 at 6:57





          Much appreciated, but I think you meant $f_1circ g$, $f_k+1circ g$ and $gcirc h$ correct? I always read $circ$ as 'after', so your current order of composition would be for a coequalizer unless I'm mistaken?
          – Alec Rhea
          Aug 12 at 6:57





          1




          1




          Quite likely$ $!
          – Lord Shark the Unknown
          Aug 12 at 7:00





          Quite likely$ $!
          – Lord Shark the Unknown
          Aug 12 at 7:00













           

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