X compact iff any collection of closed set closed by finite intersection have a nonempty intersection

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I've got a problem to show something. Actually, we consider $X$ a topological space , and we want to show :



$X$ compact $iff forall (F_i)_i in I $ collection of closed set which is closed by finite intersection : $bigcap_i in I F_i neq emptyset$



It's okay for the direction $implies$. But for the other direction, I'm stuck. Actually, this is what I did :



Let $(O_i)_i in I in (mathcalO_X)^I$ such that : $X = bigcup_i in I O_i$. If there is $i_0 in I$ such that $U_i_0 = X$, then $X = U_i_0$ and it's okay. Otherwise, we have :



$X = (bigcap_i in I U_i^c)^c$, and we consider the collection : $(U_i^c)_i in I$ which is a collection of closed subset. Then, I tried different things, I mainly try to introduce a set as : $mathcalA = ; J$ finite and $ (U_j^c)_j in J$ closed by finite intersection $$ or other set like this in order to find a $J subset I$, $J$ a finite set, which verify : $bigcup_j in J U_j = X$. But I didn't find.



If someone could help me, it will be very appreciated !



Thank you !










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  • You have to mention that your closed sets are non-empty. Otherwise the statement is obviously false.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 7 at 23:22














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I've got a problem to show something. Actually, we consider $X$ a topological space , and we want to show :



$X$ compact $iff forall (F_i)_i in I $ collection of closed set which is closed by finite intersection : $bigcap_i in I F_i neq emptyset$



It's okay for the direction $implies$. But for the other direction, I'm stuck. Actually, this is what I did :



Let $(O_i)_i in I in (mathcalO_X)^I$ such that : $X = bigcup_i in I O_i$. If there is $i_0 in I$ such that $U_i_0 = X$, then $X = U_i_0$ and it's okay. Otherwise, we have :



$X = (bigcap_i in I U_i^c)^c$, and we consider the collection : $(U_i^c)_i in I$ which is a collection of closed subset. Then, I tried different things, I mainly try to introduce a set as : $mathcalA = ; J$ finite and $ (U_j^c)_j in J$ closed by finite intersection $$ or other set like this in order to find a $J subset I$, $J$ a finite set, which verify : $bigcup_j in J U_j = X$. But I didn't find.



If someone could help me, it will be very appreciated !



Thank you !










share|cite|improve this question





















  • You have to mention that your closed sets are non-empty. Otherwise the statement is obviously false.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 7 at 23:22












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I've got a problem to show something. Actually, we consider $X$ a topological space , and we want to show :



$X$ compact $iff forall (F_i)_i in I $ collection of closed set which is closed by finite intersection : $bigcap_i in I F_i neq emptyset$



It's okay for the direction $implies$. But for the other direction, I'm stuck. Actually, this is what I did :



Let $(O_i)_i in I in (mathcalO_X)^I$ such that : $X = bigcup_i in I O_i$. If there is $i_0 in I$ such that $U_i_0 = X$, then $X = U_i_0$ and it's okay. Otherwise, we have :



$X = (bigcap_i in I U_i^c)^c$, and we consider the collection : $(U_i^c)_i in I$ which is a collection of closed subset. Then, I tried different things, I mainly try to introduce a set as : $mathcalA = ; J$ finite and $ (U_j^c)_j in J$ closed by finite intersection $$ or other set like this in order to find a $J subset I$, $J$ a finite set, which verify : $bigcup_j in J U_j = X$. But I didn't find.



If someone could help me, it will be very appreciated !



Thank you !










share|cite|improve this question













I've got a problem to show something. Actually, we consider $X$ a topological space , and we want to show :



$X$ compact $iff forall (F_i)_i in I $ collection of closed set which is closed by finite intersection : $bigcap_i in I F_i neq emptyset$



It's okay for the direction $implies$. But for the other direction, I'm stuck. Actually, this is what I did :



Let $(O_i)_i in I in (mathcalO_X)^I$ such that : $X = bigcup_i in I O_i$. If there is $i_0 in I$ such that $U_i_0 = X$, then $X = U_i_0$ and it's okay. Otherwise, we have :



$X = (bigcap_i in I U_i^c)^c$, and we consider the collection : $(U_i^c)_i in I$ which is a collection of closed subset. Then, I tried different things, I mainly try to introduce a set as : $mathcalA = ; J$ finite and $ (U_j^c)_j in J$ closed by finite intersection $$ or other set like this in order to find a $J subset I$, $J$ a finite set, which verify : $bigcup_j in J U_j = X$. But I didn't find.



If someone could help me, it will be very appreciated !



Thank you !







general-topology analysis compactness






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asked Sep 7 at 9:03









ChocoSavour

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  • You have to mention that your closed sets are non-empty. Otherwise the statement is obviously false.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 7 at 23:22
















  • You have to mention that your closed sets are non-empty. Otherwise the statement is obviously false.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Sep 7 at 23:22















You have to mention that your closed sets are non-empty. Otherwise the statement is obviously false.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 23:22




You have to mention that your closed sets are non-empty. Otherwise the statement is obviously false.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 23:22










1 Answer
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up vote
1
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For the reverse direction I would recommend arguing by contrapositive.



Claim: If $X$ is not compact, then there exists a family of closed sets $U_alpha_alpha in I$ that is closed under finite intersections, such that $bigcaplimits_alphain I U_alpha = varnothing.$



Proof: Suppose $X$ is not compact. Then, there exists an open cover $V_alpha_alpha in I$ for $X$ which does not admit a finite subcover. We will assume without loss of generality that for all $alpha in I$, $V_alpha neq varnothing$. As such, we may for all $alpha in I$ define $V_alpha = U_alpha^C$ so that $mathscrG=U_alpha_alpha in I subseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of nonempty, closed sets. Fix a finite subset $J subset I$. Since $V_alpha_alpha in I$ does not admit a finite subcover,
$$varnothing neq bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alpha subset X implies varnothing neq bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C subset X. $$
But from our definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ and de Morgan's Law, it follows that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in JU_alpha=bigcaplimits_alphain JV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C neq varnothing.$$
Since $J subset I$ was an arbitrary finite set, we conclude that $U_alpha_alpha in I$ has the finite intersection property. Now constructing the set
$$mathscrA:=J in mathscrP(I):textrmJ finite$$ and letting $I'$ be an indexing set for $mathscrA$ so that $mathscrA=J_beta_beta in I'$, we in turn construct the family of sets $mathscrH=W_beta_beta in I'$ such that for each $beta in I'$, $W_beta=bigcaplimits_alpha in J_betaU_alpha$. Further defining $mathscrI=I cup I'$, and $mathscrF=mathscrG cup mathscrH$, we see that $mathscrF =K_alpha_alpha in mathscrIsubseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of closed sets which is closed under finite intersections, with $$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcaplimits_alpha in IU_alpha.$$
However, since the $V_alpha_alpha in I$ are an open cover for $X$ by assumption, we may again invoke the definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ to show that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IU_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in I V_alphabigg)^C =X^C=varnothing,$$
which is what we promised to show.



Regards!
-Dan






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:04










  • I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:28











  • But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:41











  • If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
    – Dan
    Sep 7 at 10:45











  • We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:50











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










For the reverse direction I would recommend arguing by contrapositive.



Claim: If $X$ is not compact, then there exists a family of closed sets $U_alpha_alpha in I$ that is closed under finite intersections, such that $bigcaplimits_alphain I U_alpha = varnothing.$



Proof: Suppose $X$ is not compact. Then, there exists an open cover $V_alpha_alpha in I$ for $X$ which does not admit a finite subcover. We will assume without loss of generality that for all $alpha in I$, $V_alpha neq varnothing$. As such, we may for all $alpha in I$ define $V_alpha = U_alpha^C$ so that $mathscrG=U_alpha_alpha in I subseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of nonempty, closed sets. Fix a finite subset $J subset I$. Since $V_alpha_alpha in I$ does not admit a finite subcover,
$$varnothing neq bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alpha subset X implies varnothing neq bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C subset X. $$
But from our definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ and de Morgan's Law, it follows that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in JU_alpha=bigcaplimits_alphain JV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C neq varnothing.$$
Since $J subset I$ was an arbitrary finite set, we conclude that $U_alpha_alpha in I$ has the finite intersection property. Now constructing the set
$$mathscrA:=J in mathscrP(I):textrmJ finite$$ and letting $I'$ be an indexing set for $mathscrA$ so that $mathscrA=J_beta_beta in I'$, we in turn construct the family of sets $mathscrH=W_beta_beta in I'$ such that for each $beta in I'$, $W_beta=bigcaplimits_alpha in J_betaU_alpha$. Further defining $mathscrI=I cup I'$, and $mathscrF=mathscrG cup mathscrH$, we see that $mathscrF =K_alpha_alpha in mathscrIsubseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of closed sets which is closed under finite intersections, with $$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcaplimits_alpha in IU_alpha.$$
However, since the $V_alpha_alpha in I$ are an open cover for $X$ by assumption, we may again invoke the definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ to show that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IU_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in I V_alphabigg)^C =X^C=varnothing,$$
which is what we promised to show.



Regards!
-Dan






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:04










  • I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:28











  • But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:41











  • If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
    – Dan
    Sep 7 at 10:45











  • We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:50















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










For the reverse direction I would recommend arguing by contrapositive.



Claim: If $X$ is not compact, then there exists a family of closed sets $U_alpha_alpha in I$ that is closed under finite intersections, such that $bigcaplimits_alphain I U_alpha = varnothing.$



Proof: Suppose $X$ is not compact. Then, there exists an open cover $V_alpha_alpha in I$ for $X$ which does not admit a finite subcover. We will assume without loss of generality that for all $alpha in I$, $V_alpha neq varnothing$. As such, we may for all $alpha in I$ define $V_alpha = U_alpha^C$ so that $mathscrG=U_alpha_alpha in I subseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of nonempty, closed sets. Fix a finite subset $J subset I$. Since $V_alpha_alpha in I$ does not admit a finite subcover,
$$varnothing neq bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alpha subset X implies varnothing neq bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C subset X. $$
But from our definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ and de Morgan's Law, it follows that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in JU_alpha=bigcaplimits_alphain JV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C neq varnothing.$$
Since $J subset I$ was an arbitrary finite set, we conclude that $U_alpha_alpha in I$ has the finite intersection property. Now constructing the set
$$mathscrA:=J in mathscrP(I):textrmJ finite$$ and letting $I'$ be an indexing set for $mathscrA$ so that $mathscrA=J_beta_beta in I'$, we in turn construct the family of sets $mathscrH=W_beta_beta in I'$ such that for each $beta in I'$, $W_beta=bigcaplimits_alpha in J_betaU_alpha$. Further defining $mathscrI=I cup I'$, and $mathscrF=mathscrG cup mathscrH$, we see that $mathscrF =K_alpha_alpha in mathscrIsubseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of closed sets which is closed under finite intersections, with $$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcaplimits_alpha in IU_alpha.$$
However, since the $V_alpha_alpha in I$ are an open cover for $X$ by assumption, we may again invoke the definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ to show that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IU_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in I V_alphabigg)^C =X^C=varnothing,$$
which is what we promised to show.



Regards!
-Dan






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:04










  • I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:28











  • But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:41











  • If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
    – Dan
    Sep 7 at 10:45











  • We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:50













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






For the reverse direction I would recommend arguing by contrapositive.



Claim: If $X$ is not compact, then there exists a family of closed sets $U_alpha_alpha in I$ that is closed under finite intersections, such that $bigcaplimits_alphain I U_alpha = varnothing.$



Proof: Suppose $X$ is not compact. Then, there exists an open cover $V_alpha_alpha in I$ for $X$ which does not admit a finite subcover. We will assume without loss of generality that for all $alpha in I$, $V_alpha neq varnothing$. As such, we may for all $alpha in I$ define $V_alpha = U_alpha^C$ so that $mathscrG=U_alpha_alpha in I subseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of nonempty, closed sets. Fix a finite subset $J subset I$. Since $V_alpha_alpha in I$ does not admit a finite subcover,
$$varnothing neq bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alpha subset X implies varnothing neq bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C subset X. $$
But from our definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ and de Morgan's Law, it follows that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in JU_alpha=bigcaplimits_alphain JV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C neq varnothing.$$
Since $J subset I$ was an arbitrary finite set, we conclude that $U_alpha_alpha in I$ has the finite intersection property. Now constructing the set
$$mathscrA:=J in mathscrP(I):textrmJ finite$$ and letting $I'$ be an indexing set for $mathscrA$ so that $mathscrA=J_beta_beta in I'$, we in turn construct the family of sets $mathscrH=W_beta_beta in I'$ such that for each $beta in I'$, $W_beta=bigcaplimits_alpha in J_betaU_alpha$. Further defining $mathscrI=I cup I'$, and $mathscrF=mathscrG cup mathscrH$, we see that $mathscrF =K_alpha_alpha in mathscrIsubseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of closed sets which is closed under finite intersections, with $$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcaplimits_alpha in IU_alpha.$$
However, since the $V_alpha_alpha in I$ are an open cover for $X$ by assumption, we may again invoke the definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ to show that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IU_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in I V_alphabigg)^C =X^C=varnothing,$$
which is what we promised to show.



Regards!
-Dan






share|cite|improve this answer














For the reverse direction I would recommend arguing by contrapositive.



Claim: If $X$ is not compact, then there exists a family of closed sets $U_alpha_alpha in I$ that is closed under finite intersections, such that $bigcaplimits_alphain I U_alpha = varnothing.$



Proof: Suppose $X$ is not compact. Then, there exists an open cover $V_alpha_alpha in I$ for $X$ which does not admit a finite subcover. We will assume without loss of generality that for all $alpha in I$, $V_alpha neq varnothing$. As such, we may for all $alpha in I$ define $V_alpha = U_alpha^C$ so that $mathscrG=U_alpha_alpha in I subseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of nonempty, closed sets. Fix a finite subset $J subset I$. Since $V_alpha_alpha in I$ does not admit a finite subcover,
$$varnothing neq bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alpha subset X implies varnothing neq bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C subset X. $$
But from our definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ and de Morgan's Law, it follows that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in JU_alpha=bigcaplimits_alphain JV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in J V_alphabigg)^C neq varnothing.$$
Since $J subset I$ was an arbitrary finite set, we conclude that $U_alpha_alpha in I$ has the finite intersection property. Now constructing the set
$$mathscrA:=J in mathscrP(I):textrmJ finite$$ and letting $I'$ be an indexing set for $mathscrA$ so that $mathscrA=J_beta_beta in I'$, we in turn construct the family of sets $mathscrH=W_beta_beta in I'$ such that for each $beta in I'$, $W_beta=bigcaplimits_alpha in J_betaU_alpha$. Further defining $mathscrI=I cup I'$, and $mathscrF=mathscrG cup mathscrH$, we see that $mathscrF =K_alpha_alpha in mathscrIsubseteq mathscrP(X)$ is a family of closed sets which is closed under finite intersections, with $$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcaplimits_alpha in IU_alpha.$$
However, since the $V_alpha_alpha in I$ are an open cover for $X$ by assumption, we may again invoke the definition of $U_alpha_alpha in I$ to show that
$$bigcaplimits_alpha in mathscrIK_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IU_alpha=bigcap_alpha in IV_alpha^C=bigg(bigcuplimits_alpha in I V_alphabigg)^C =X^C=varnothing,$$
which is what we promised to show.



Regards!
-Dan







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edited Sep 7 at 11:47

























answered Sep 7 at 9:52









Dan

564




564











  • Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:04










  • I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:28











  • But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:41











  • If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
    – Dan
    Sep 7 at 10:45











  • We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:50

















  • Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:04










  • I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:28











  • But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:41











  • If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
    – Dan
    Sep 7 at 10:45











  • We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
    – ChocoSavour
    Sep 7 at 10:50
















Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:04




Okay, thank you. The only problem I have with your proof, is that the contrapositive is : $X$ not compact $implies exists (U_i)_i in I$ of closed subspace, which is closed by finite intersection, which verify : $bigcap U_i = emptyset$. And here, how do we know that the $(U_alpha)$ you found is closed by finite intersection ? Maybe, $V_1^c cap V_2^c notin (V_alpha^c)_alpha$, no ?
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:04












I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:28





I'm really sorry, I have the impression that I'm missing something... Why the $(U_i)$ would be closed under finite intersection ? It means that if I takes $i, j$, then : $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c in (U_i)_i$, so $V_i cup V_j = V_k, k in I$. But why it could be the case ?
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:28













But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:41





But why ? Really, I don't see why... Let's take $|J| = 2$, and as I explained in my comment just below yours, why $U_i cap U_j = (V_i cup V_j)^c$ would be on $((V_k)^c)_k in I$. Actually, if $U_i cap U_j neq emptyset$, then $forall x in U_i cap U_j ; exists k_x in I backslash i,j ; x in V_k_x$. But $k_x$ is depending of $x$, and then maybe we have not the same $k$ for all the $x$, for example we could have : $U_i cap U_j = V_k_1 cup V_k_2$, with $k_1 neq k_2$ and $V_k_1 cup V_k_2 notin (V_k)_k in I$, and then $U_i cap U_j notin (U_k)_k in I$.
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:41













If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
– Dan
Sep 7 at 10:45





If we take $|J|=2$, since $V_i, V_j$ are nonempty it is clear that $varnothing neq V_i cup V_j subset X$ Then since $U_i=V_i^C$, same for $U_j$, we see that $$U_i cap U_j=V_i^C cap V_j^C =(V_i cup V_j)^C,$$ which is nonempty.
– Dan
Sep 7 at 10:45













We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:50





We are okay on the fact that $(V_k)_k in I = V_k $, and then $U_i cap U_j in (V_k)_k in I iff U_i cap U_j = V_l$ for $l in I$ ? Then, $U_i = V_i^c$ and $U_j in V_j^c$, so $U_i cap U_j = V_i^c cap V_j^c = (V_i cup V_j)^c$, but it doesn't mean that $V_i cup V_j in (V_k)_k in I$ cause maybe this last collection is not even closed under finite union. Cause in fact, we have to show that $(U_i)_i$ is closed under finite intersection, and we didn't...
– ChocoSavour
Sep 7 at 10:50


















 

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