verify logical equivalence without truth table

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0
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$(pland q)rightarrow r$ and $(prightarrow r)lor (qrightarrow r)$



Have to try prove if they are logically equivalent or not using the laws listed below and also if need to use negation and implication laws. I was going to use associative law and then distributive but I wasn't sure how to get rid of the "implies"



Commutative laws: p ∧ q ≡ q ∧ p
p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p

De Morgan’s laws: ∼(p ∧ q) ≡ ∼p ∨ ∼q
∼(p ∨ q) ≡ ∼p ∧ ∼q

Idempotent laws: p ∧ p ≡ p
p ∨ p ≡ p

Associative laws: (p ∧ q) ∧ r ≡ p ∧ (q ∧ r)
(p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)

Distributive laws: p ∧ (q ∨ r) ≡ (p ∧ q) ∨ (p ∧ r)
p ∨ (q ∧ r) ≡ (p ∨ q) ∧ (p ∨ r)









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  • 1




    Those two statements are not equivalent! Did you maybe mean $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$?
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 1:59










  • how would i prove they are not equivalent ?
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:01










  • Im trying to prove if they are equivalent or not
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:02






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Good advice! Always looking to improve the community! Thanks! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:32






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Best wishes to you!! Keep up those logic skills! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:55














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












$(pland q)rightarrow r$ and $(prightarrow r)lor (qrightarrow r)$



Have to try prove if they are logically equivalent or not using the laws listed below and also if need to use negation and implication laws. I was going to use associative law and then distributive but I wasn't sure how to get rid of the "implies"



Commutative laws: p ∧ q ≡ q ∧ p
p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p

De Morgan’s laws: ∼(p ∧ q) ≡ ∼p ∨ ∼q
∼(p ∨ q) ≡ ∼p ∧ ∼q

Idempotent laws: p ∧ p ≡ p
p ∨ p ≡ p

Associative laws: (p ∧ q) ∧ r ≡ p ∧ (q ∧ r)
(p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)

Distributive laws: p ∧ (q ∨ r) ≡ (p ∧ q) ∨ (p ∧ r)
p ∨ (q ∧ r) ≡ (p ∨ q) ∧ (p ∨ r)









share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    Those two statements are not equivalent! Did you maybe mean $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$?
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 1:59










  • how would i prove they are not equivalent ?
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:01










  • Im trying to prove if they are equivalent or not
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:02






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Good advice! Always looking to improve the community! Thanks! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:32






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Best wishes to you!! Keep up those logic skills! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:55












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











$(pland q)rightarrow r$ and $(prightarrow r)lor (qrightarrow r)$



Have to try prove if they are logically equivalent or not using the laws listed below and also if need to use negation and implication laws. I was going to use associative law and then distributive but I wasn't sure how to get rid of the "implies"



Commutative laws: p ∧ q ≡ q ∧ p
p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p

De Morgan’s laws: ∼(p ∧ q) ≡ ∼p ∨ ∼q
∼(p ∨ q) ≡ ∼p ∧ ∼q

Idempotent laws: p ∧ p ≡ p
p ∨ p ≡ p

Associative laws: (p ∧ q) ∧ r ≡ p ∧ (q ∧ r)
(p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)

Distributive laws: p ∧ (q ∨ r) ≡ (p ∧ q) ∨ (p ∧ r)
p ∨ (q ∧ r) ≡ (p ∨ q) ∧ (p ∨ r)









share|cite|improve this question















$(pland q)rightarrow r$ and $(prightarrow r)lor (qrightarrow r)$



Have to try prove if they are logically equivalent or not using the laws listed below and also if need to use negation and implication laws. I was going to use associative law and then distributive but I wasn't sure how to get rid of the "implies"



Commutative laws: p ∧ q ≡ q ∧ p
p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p

De Morgan’s laws: ∼(p ∧ q) ≡ ∼p ∨ ∼q
∼(p ∨ q) ≡ ∼p ∧ ∼q

Idempotent laws: p ∧ p ≡ p
p ∨ p ≡ p

Associative laws: (p ∧ q) ∧ r ≡ p ∧ (q ∧ r)
(p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)

Distributive laws: p ∧ (q ∨ r) ≡ (p ∧ q) ∨ (p ∧ r)
p ∨ (q ∧ r) ≡ (p ∨ q) ∧ (p ∨ r)






logic propositional-calculus






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edited Mar 23 '17 at 2:10









Bram28

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asked Mar 22 '17 at 1:42









M.Jones

1279




1279







  • 1




    Those two statements are not equivalent! Did you maybe mean $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$?
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 1:59










  • how would i prove they are not equivalent ?
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:01










  • Im trying to prove if they are equivalent or not
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:02






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Good advice! Always looking to improve the community! Thanks! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:32






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Best wishes to you!! Keep up those logic skills! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:55












  • 1




    Those two statements are not equivalent! Did you maybe mean $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$?
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 1:59










  • how would i prove they are not equivalent ?
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:01










  • Im trying to prove if they are equivalent or not
    – M.Jones
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:02






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Good advice! Always looking to improve the community! Thanks! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:32






  • 1




    @Phyllotactic Best wishes to you!! Keep up those logic skills! :)
    – Bram28
    Mar 22 '17 at 2:55







1




1




Those two statements are not equivalent! Did you maybe mean $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$?
– Bram28
Mar 22 '17 at 1:59




Those two statements are not equivalent! Did you maybe mean $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$?
– Bram28
Mar 22 '17 at 1:59












how would i prove they are not equivalent ?
– M.Jones
Mar 22 '17 at 2:01




how would i prove they are not equivalent ?
– M.Jones
Mar 22 '17 at 2:01












Im trying to prove if they are equivalent or not
– M.Jones
Mar 22 '17 at 2:02




Im trying to prove if they are equivalent or not
– M.Jones
Mar 22 '17 at 2:02




1




1




@Phyllotactic Good advice! Always looking to improve the community! Thanks! :)
– Bram28
Mar 22 '17 at 2:32




@Phyllotactic Good advice! Always looking to improve the community! Thanks! :)
– Bram28
Mar 22 '17 at 2:32




1




1




@Phyllotactic Best wishes to you!! Keep up those logic skills! :)
– Bram28
Mar 22 '17 at 2:55




@Phyllotactic Best wishes to you!! Keep up those logic skills! :)
– Bram28
Mar 22 '17 at 2:55










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










With the laws that you provide you will not ba able to prove their equivalence. You need an equivalence involving implications. here is the one that is typically used:



Implication: $p rightarrow q equiv neg p lor q$



Use it as follows:



$(p land q) rightarrow r equiv$ (implication)



$neg (p land q) lor r equiv$ (deMorgan)



$(neg p lor neg q) lor r equiv$ (Idempotence)



$(neg p lor neg q) lor (r lor r) equiv$ (Association)



$neg p lor ( neg q lor (r lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



$neg p lor ((neg q lor r) lor r) equiv$ (commutation)



$neg p lor (r lor (neg q lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



$(neg p lor r) lor (neg q lor r) equiv$ (implication)



$(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    The two statements are not equivalent.



    Obviously you cannot use equivalence principles to demonstrate non-equivalence, so let's use a counterexample:



    Let $p=True$, $q =False$, and $r=False$



    then $(p land q) rightarrow r = (Tland F) rightarrow F = F rightarrow F = T$



    But $(p rightarrow r) land (q rightarrow r) = (T rightarrow F) land (F rightarrow F) = Fland T =F$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
      – M.Jones
      Mar 22 '17 at 2:14










    • Would that change the answer?
      – M.Jones
      Mar 22 '17 at 2:16










    • @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
      – Bram28
      Mar 22 '17 at 2:26

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    You are missing a equivalence:



    1. p → q ≡ ¬p v q


    I find it easier to work on the right side:



     (p ∧ q)→r ≡ (p → r) ∨ (q → r) 


    Taking only the right side:



    (p → r) ∨ (q → r) (Using 1.)

    (¬p v r) ∨ (¬q v r) (Commutative laws on the right parentheses)

    (¬p v r) ∨ (r v ¬q) (Associative laws)

    ¬p v ((r ∨ r) v ¬q) (Idempotent laws)

    ¬p v ((r) v ¬q) (Commutative laws)

    ¬p v (¬q v r) (Associative laws)

    ((¬p v ¬q) v r) (De Morgan's laws)

    ¬(p ∧ q) v r (Using 1.)

    (p ∧ q) → r





    share|cite|improve this answer




















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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    With the laws that you provide you will not ba able to prove their equivalence. You need an equivalence involving implications. here is the one that is typically used:



    Implication: $p rightarrow q equiv neg p lor q$



    Use it as follows:



    $(p land q) rightarrow r equiv$ (implication)



    $neg (p land q) lor r equiv$ (deMorgan)



    $(neg p lor neg q) lor r equiv$ (Idempotence)



    $(neg p lor neg q) lor (r lor r) equiv$ (Association)



    $neg p lor ( neg q lor (r lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



    $neg p lor ((neg q lor r) lor r) equiv$ (commutation)



    $neg p lor (r lor (neg q lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



    $(neg p lor r) lor (neg q lor r) equiv$ (implication)



    $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      With the laws that you provide you will not ba able to prove their equivalence. You need an equivalence involving implications. here is the one that is typically used:



      Implication: $p rightarrow q equiv neg p lor q$



      Use it as follows:



      $(p land q) rightarrow r equiv$ (implication)



      $neg (p land q) lor r equiv$ (deMorgan)



      $(neg p lor neg q) lor r equiv$ (Idempotence)



      $(neg p lor neg q) lor (r lor r) equiv$ (Association)



      $neg p lor ( neg q lor (r lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



      $neg p lor ((neg q lor r) lor r) equiv$ (commutation)



      $neg p lor (r lor (neg q lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



      $(neg p lor r) lor (neg q lor r) equiv$ (implication)



      $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        With the laws that you provide you will not ba able to prove their equivalence. You need an equivalence involving implications. here is the one that is typically used:



        Implication: $p rightarrow q equiv neg p lor q$



        Use it as follows:



        $(p land q) rightarrow r equiv$ (implication)



        $neg (p land q) lor r equiv$ (deMorgan)



        $(neg p lor neg q) lor r equiv$ (Idempotence)



        $(neg p lor neg q) lor (r lor r) equiv$ (Association)



        $neg p lor ( neg q lor (r lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



        $neg p lor ((neg q lor r) lor r) equiv$ (commutation)



        $neg p lor (r lor (neg q lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



        $(neg p lor r) lor (neg q lor r) equiv$ (implication)



        $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        With the laws that you provide you will not ba able to prove their equivalence. You need an equivalence involving implications. here is the one that is typically used:



        Implication: $p rightarrow q equiv neg p lor q$



        Use it as follows:



        $(p land q) rightarrow r equiv$ (implication)



        $neg (p land q) lor r equiv$ (deMorgan)



        $(neg p lor neg q) lor r equiv$ (Idempotence)



        $(neg p lor neg q) lor (r lor r) equiv$ (Association)



        $neg p lor ( neg q lor (r lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



        $neg p lor ((neg q lor r) lor r) equiv$ (commutation)



        $neg p lor (r lor (neg q lor r)) equiv$ (Association)



        $(neg p lor r) lor (neg q lor r) equiv$ (implication)



        $(p rightarrow r) lor (q rightarrow r)$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 22 '17 at 2:23









        Bram28

        55.6k33982




        55.6k33982




















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            The two statements are not equivalent.



            Obviously you cannot use equivalence principles to demonstrate non-equivalence, so let's use a counterexample:



            Let $p=True$, $q =False$, and $r=False$



            then $(p land q) rightarrow r = (Tland F) rightarrow F = F rightarrow F = T$



            But $(p rightarrow r) land (q rightarrow r) = (T rightarrow F) land (F rightarrow F) = Fland T =F$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:14










            • Would that change the answer?
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:16










            • @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
              – Bram28
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:26














            up vote
            1
            down vote













            The two statements are not equivalent.



            Obviously you cannot use equivalence principles to demonstrate non-equivalence, so let's use a counterexample:



            Let $p=True$, $q =False$, and $r=False$



            then $(p land q) rightarrow r = (Tland F) rightarrow F = F rightarrow F = T$



            But $(p rightarrow r) land (q rightarrow r) = (T rightarrow F) land (F rightarrow F) = Fland T =F$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:14










            • Would that change the answer?
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:16










            • @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
              – Bram28
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:26












            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            The two statements are not equivalent.



            Obviously you cannot use equivalence principles to demonstrate non-equivalence, so let's use a counterexample:



            Let $p=True$, $q =False$, and $r=False$



            then $(p land q) rightarrow r = (Tland F) rightarrow F = F rightarrow F = T$



            But $(p rightarrow r) land (q rightarrow r) = (T rightarrow F) land (F rightarrow F) = Fland T =F$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            The two statements are not equivalent.



            Obviously you cannot use equivalence principles to demonstrate non-equivalence, so let's use a counterexample:



            Let $p=True$, $q =False$, and $r=False$



            then $(p land q) rightarrow r = (Tland F) rightarrow F = F rightarrow F = T$



            But $(p rightarrow r) land (q rightarrow r) = (T rightarrow F) land (F rightarrow F) = Fland T =F$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 22 '17 at 2:05









            Bram28

            55.6k33982




            55.6k33982











            • Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:14










            • Would that change the answer?
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:16










            • @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
              – Bram28
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:26
















            • Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:14










            • Would that change the answer?
              – M.Jones
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:16










            • @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
              – Bram28
              Mar 22 '17 at 2:26















            Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
            – M.Jones
            Mar 22 '17 at 2:14




            Sorry the RHS equation should be (p implies r) or ( q implies r )
            – M.Jones
            Mar 22 '17 at 2:14












            Would that change the answer?
            – M.Jones
            Mar 22 '17 at 2:16




            Would that change the answer?
            – M.Jones
            Mar 22 '17 at 2:16












            @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
            – Bram28
            Mar 22 '17 at 2:26




            @M.Jones Ah! As I expected! Yes, that changes things, as now they are equivalent!
            – Bram28
            Mar 22 '17 at 2:26










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            You are missing a equivalence:



            1. p → q ≡ ¬p v q


            I find it easier to work on the right side:



             (p ∧ q)→r ≡ (p → r) ∨ (q → r) 


            Taking only the right side:



            (p → r) ∨ (q → r) (Using 1.)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (¬q v r) (Commutative laws on the right parentheses)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (r v ¬q) (Associative laws)

            ¬p v ((r ∨ r) v ¬q) (Idempotent laws)

            ¬p v ((r) v ¬q) (Commutative laws)

            ¬p v (¬q v r) (Associative laws)

            ((¬p v ¬q) v r) (De Morgan's laws)

            ¬(p ∧ q) v r (Using 1.)

            (p ∧ q) → r





            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • here is a reference for mathjax to help typesetting maths on the site.
              – Siong Thye Goh
              Sep 7 at 3:27














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            You are missing a equivalence:



            1. p → q ≡ ¬p v q


            I find it easier to work on the right side:



             (p ∧ q)→r ≡ (p → r) ∨ (q → r) 


            Taking only the right side:



            (p → r) ∨ (q → r) (Using 1.)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (¬q v r) (Commutative laws on the right parentheses)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (r v ¬q) (Associative laws)

            ¬p v ((r ∨ r) v ¬q) (Idempotent laws)

            ¬p v ((r) v ¬q) (Commutative laws)

            ¬p v (¬q v r) (Associative laws)

            ((¬p v ¬q) v r) (De Morgan's laws)

            ¬(p ∧ q) v r (Using 1.)

            (p ∧ q) → r





            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • here is a reference for mathjax to help typesetting maths on the site.
              – Siong Thye Goh
              Sep 7 at 3:27












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            You are missing a equivalence:



            1. p → q ≡ ¬p v q


            I find it easier to work on the right side:



             (p ∧ q)→r ≡ (p → r) ∨ (q → r) 


            Taking only the right side:



            (p → r) ∨ (q → r) (Using 1.)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (¬q v r) (Commutative laws on the right parentheses)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (r v ¬q) (Associative laws)

            ¬p v ((r ∨ r) v ¬q) (Idempotent laws)

            ¬p v ((r) v ¬q) (Commutative laws)

            ¬p v (¬q v r) (Associative laws)

            ((¬p v ¬q) v r) (De Morgan's laws)

            ¬(p ∧ q) v r (Using 1.)

            (p ∧ q) → r





            share|cite|improve this answer












            You are missing a equivalence:



            1. p → q ≡ ¬p v q


            I find it easier to work on the right side:



             (p ∧ q)→r ≡ (p → r) ∨ (q → r) 


            Taking only the right side:



            (p → r) ∨ (q → r) (Using 1.)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (¬q v r) (Commutative laws on the right parentheses)

            (¬p v r) ∨ (r v ¬q) (Associative laws)

            ¬p v ((r ∨ r) v ¬q) (Idempotent laws)

            ¬p v ((r) v ¬q) (Commutative laws)

            ¬p v (¬q v r) (Associative laws)

            ((¬p v ¬q) v r) (De Morgan's laws)

            ¬(p ∧ q) v r (Using 1.)

            (p ∧ q) → r






            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Sep 7 at 3:07









            BrunoR

            1




            1











            • here is a reference for mathjax to help typesetting maths on the site.
              – Siong Thye Goh
              Sep 7 at 3:27
















            • here is a reference for mathjax to help typesetting maths on the site.
              – Siong Thye Goh
              Sep 7 at 3:27















            here is a reference for mathjax to help typesetting maths on the site.
            – Siong Thye Goh
            Sep 7 at 3:27




            here is a reference for mathjax to help typesetting maths on the site.
            – Siong Thye Goh
            Sep 7 at 3:27

















             

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