If a set and its complement both have empty interior, then the boundary of each of them is $X$

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I would like to show the following:




Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space.
If a set and its complement both have empty interior, then the boundary of each of them is $X$.




Could you give me a hint?










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  • Choose $xin X$ and a ball around it. Show that it contains points from both the set and its complement.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:28










  • but the interior of the set is empty
    – camilo
    Sep 7 at 4:32










  • camilo Yes, and of its complement, too. That does not prevent you to choose an open ball around $x$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @camilo precisely! what does that tell you?
    – Guido A.
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @GuidoA. Do you know Prof Cabrelli? He's the coolest professor I ever met...
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:37















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I would like to show the following:




Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space.
If a set and its complement both have empty interior, then the boundary of each of them is $X$.




Could you give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question























  • Choose $xin X$ and a ball around it. Show that it contains points from both the set and its complement.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:28










  • but the interior of the set is empty
    – camilo
    Sep 7 at 4:32










  • camilo Yes, and of its complement, too. That does not prevent you to choose an open ball around $x$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @camilo precisely! what does that tell you?
    – Guido A.
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @GuidoA. Do you know Prof Cabrelli? He's the coolest professor I ever met...
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:37













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I would like to show the following:




Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space.
If a set and its complement both have empty interior, then the boundary of each of them is $X$.




Could you give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question















I would like to show the following:




Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space.
If a set and its complement both have empty interior, then the boundary of each of them is $X$.




Could you give me a hint?







general-topology metric-spaces






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edited Sep 12 at 17:18









Brahadeesh

4,18831550




4,18831550










asked Sep 7 at 4:21









camilo

266




266











  • Choose $xin X$ and a ball around it. Show that it contains points from both the set and its complement.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:28










  • but the interior of the set is empty
    – camilo
    Sep 7 at 4:32










  • camilo Yes, and of its complement, too. That does not prevent you to choose an open ball around $x$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @camilo precisely! what does that tell you?
    – Guido A.
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @GuidoA. Do you know Prof Cabrelli? He's the coolest professor I ever met...
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:37

















  • Choose $xin X$ and a ball around it. Show that it contains points from both the set and its complement.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:28










  • but the interior of the set is empty
    – camilo
    Sep 7 at 4:32










  • camilo Yes, and of its complement, too. That does not prevent you to choose an open ball around $x$.
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @camilo precisely! what does that tell you?
    – Guido A.
    Sep 7 at 4:36











  • @GuidoA. Do you know Prof Cabrelli? He's the coolest professor I ever met...
    – amsmath
    Sep 7 at 4:37
















Choose $xin X$ and a ball around it. Show that it contains points from both the set and its complement.
– amsmath
Sep 7 at 4:28




Choose $xin X$ and a ball around it. Show that it contains points from both the set and its complement.
– amsmath
Sep 7 at 4:28












but the interior of the set is empty
– camilo
Sep 7 at 4:32




but the interior of the set is empty
– camilo
Sep 7 at 4:32












camilo Yes, and of its complement, too. That does not prevent you to choose an open ball around $x$.
– amsmath
Sep 7 at 4:36





camilo Yes, and of its complement, too. That does not prevent you to choose an open ball around $x$.
– amsmath
Sep 7 at 4:36













@camilo precisely! what does that tell you?
– Guido A.
Sep 7 at 4:36





@camilo precisely! what does that tell you?
– Guido A.
Sep 7 at 4:36













@GuidoA. Do you know Prof Cabrelli? He's the coolest professor I ever met...
– amsmath
Sep 7 at 4:37





@GuidoA. Do you know Prof Cabrelli? He's the coolest professor I ever met...
– amsmath
Sep 7 at 4:37











4 Answers
4






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See the boundary of any set, say $A$ in $(X, d)$ is equal to $cl(A) setminus int(A)$. So if $A$ has an empty interior then $partial A =cl(A)$ (here, $partial A :=$Boundary of $A$).



Now let $A$ be a given set in $X$ such that $int(A)=emptyset=int(Xsetminus A)$.



To prove: $A$ and $X setminus A$ both has $X$ as their boundary. i.e., $A$ and $X setminus A$ are dense in $X$ (Why?)



Proof Suppose $U$ be a non empty open set in $X$. Now since $int(A) =emptyset$, $U not subset A$ (Recall that interior is the largest open set inside a set and in this case interior of $A$ is $emptyset$) . This means $U cap X setminus A ne emptyset$. Since $U$ was an arbitrary non empty open set in $X$ so it means $cl(Xsetminus A)=X$ but see $cl(Xsetminus A)=partial (Xsetminus A)$.



Similarly you can prove that $partial A=X$.



This completes the proof.






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    Recall that if $S$ has no interior, then $partial S = barS setminus S^° = barS$. So let's show that $barS = overlineX setminus S = X$ if $S$ and its complement have no interior. Since



    $$
    barS = bigcap_S subseteq F\ textclosedF
    $$



    We ought to see that the only closed set containing $S$ is $X$. In effect, take $F$ closed that contains $S$. Now, $X setminus F$ is open and is contained in $X setminus S$ which has empty interior. Thus, $X setminus F$ is empty, and so $F = X$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























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      Denote the set by $A$. Let $xin X$ and let $B$ be an arbitrary ball around $x$. If $xin A$, then $Bnotsubset A$ because otherwise $xinoperatornameint(A)$. Hence, $B$ contains $xin A$ and a point from $Xbackslash A$. As $B$ was arbitrary, $xinpartial A$. If $xnotin A$, the above reasoning applies with the roles of $A$ and $Xbackslash A$ exchanged.




      Other approach: By definition of the boundary, $partial A = partial(Xbackslash A)$. For any set $S$ we have $overline S = partial Scupoperatornameint(S)$. So, $Asubsetoverline A = partial A$ and, similarly, $Xbackslash Asubsetpartial(Xbackslash A)$. So, $X = Acup(Xbackslash A)subsetpartial A$.






      share|cite|improve this answer





























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        In any topological space $X,$ for any $Asubset X$ we have $overline A=Int(A)cup partial (A).$ And of course with $A^c=Xbackslash A$ we have $overline A^c=Int(A^c)cup partial (A^c).$



        And $partial (A)=overline A cap overline A^c=partial (A^c)$ by definition of $partial.$



        So if $Int(A)=emptyset=Int (A^c)$ then $overline A=partial (A)=partial (A^c)=overline A^c.$ Hence $$X=Acup A^csubset overline Acup overline A^c=$$ $$=partial (A)cup partial (A^c)=partial (A)=partial (A^c)subset X.$$






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          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

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          4 Answers
          4






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          oldest

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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          See the boundary of any set, say $A$ in $(X, d)$ is equal to $cl(A) setminus int(A)$. So if $A$ has an empty interior then $partial A =cl(A)$ (here, $partial A :=$Boundary of $A$).



          Now let $A$ be a given set in $X$ such that $int(A)=emptyset=int(Xsetminus A)$.



          To prove: $A$ and $X setminus A$ both has $X$ as their boundary. i.e., $A$ and $X setminus A$ are dense in $X$ (Why?)



          Proof Suppose $U$ be a non empty open set in $X$. Now since $int(A) =emptyset$, $U not subset A$ (Recall that interior is the largest open set inside a set and in this case interior of $A$ is $emptyset$) . This means $U cap X setminus A ne emptyset$. Since $U$ was an arbitrary non empty open set in $X$ so it means $cl(Xsetminus A)=X$ but see $cl(Xsetminus A)=partial (Xsetminus A)$.



          Similarly you can prove that $partial A=X$.



          This completes the proof.






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted










            See the boundary of any set, say $A$ in $(X, d)$ is equal to $cl(A) setminus int(A)$. So if $A$ has an empty interior then $partial A =cl(A)$ (here, $partial A :=$Boundary of $A$).



            Now let $A$ be a given set in $X$ such that $int(A)=emptyset=int(Xsetminus A)$.



            To prove: $A$ and $X setminus A$ both has $X$ as their boundary. i.e., $A$ and $X setminus A$ are dense in $X$ (Why?)



            Proof Suppose $U$ be a non empty open set in $X$. Now since $int(A) =emptyset$, $U not subset A$ (Recall that interior is the largest open set inside a set and in this case interior of $A$ is $emptyset$) . This means $U cap X setminus A ne emptyset$. Since $U$ was an arbitrary non empty open set in $X$ so it means $cl(Xsetminus A)=X$ but see $cl(Xsetminus A)=partial (Xsetminus A)$.



            Similarly you can prove that $partial A=X$.



            This completes the proof.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted






              See the boundary of any set, say $A$ in $(X, d)$ is equal to $cl(A) setminus int(A)$. So if $A$ has an empty interior then $partial A =cl(A)$ (here, $partial A :=$Boundary of $A$).



              Now let $A$ be a given set in $X$ such that $int(A)=emptyset=int(Xsetminus A)$.



              To prove: $A$ and $X setminus A$ both has $X$ as their boundary. i.e., $A$ and $X setminus A$ are dense in $X$ (Why?)



              Proof Suppose $U$ be a non empty open set in $X$. Now since $int(A) =emptyset$, $U not subset A$ (Recall that interior is the largest open set inside a set and in this case interior of $A$ is $emptyset$) . This means $U cap X setminus A ne emptyset$. Since $U$ was an arbitrary non empty open set in $X$ so it means $cl(Xsetminus A)=X$ but see $cl(Xsetminus A)=partial (Xsetminus A)$.



              Similarly you can prove that $partial A=X$.



              This completes the proof.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              See the boundary of any set, say $A$ in $(X, d)$ is equal to $cl(A) setminus int(A)$. So if $A$ has an empty interior then $partial A =cl(A)$ (here, $partial A :=$Boundary of $A$).



              Now let $A$ be a given set in $X$ such that $int(A)=emptyset=int(Xsetminus A)$.



              To prove: $A$ and $X setminus A$ both has $X$ as their boundary. i.e., $A$ and $X setminus A$ are dense in $X$ (Why?)



              Proof Suppose $U$ be a non empty open set in $X$. Now since $int(A) =emptyset$, $U not subset A$ (Recall that interior is the largest open set inside a set and in this case interior of $A$ is $emptyset$) . This means $U cap X setminus A ne emptyset$. Since $U$ was an arbitrary non empty open set in $X$ so it means $cl(Xsetminus A)=X$ but see $cl(Xsetminus A)=partial (Xsetminus A)$.



              Similarly you can prove that $partial A=X$.



              This completes the proof.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Sep 7 at 4:55









              Indrajit Ghosh

              879517




              879517




















                  up vote
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                  down vote













                  Recall that if $S$ has no interior, then $partial S = barS setminus S^° = barS$. So let's show that $barS = overlineX setminus S = X$ if $S$ and its complement have no interior. Since



                  $$
                  barS = bigcap_S subseteq F\ textclosedF
                  $$



                  We ought to see that the only closed set containing $S$ is $X$. In effect, take $F$ closed that contains $S$. Now, $X setminus F$ is open and is contained in $X setminus S$ which has empty interior. Thus, $X setminus F$ is empty, and so $F = X$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    Recall that if $S$ has no interior, then $partial S = barS setminus S^° = barS$. So let's show that $barS = overlineX setminus S = X$ if $S$ and its complement have no interior. Since



                    $$
                    barS = bigcap_S subseteq F\ textclosedF
                    $$



                    We ought to see that the only closed set containing $S$ is $X$. In effect, take $F$ closed that contains $S$. Now, $X setminus F$ is open and is contained in $X setminus S$ which has empty interior. Thus, $X setminus F$ is empty, and so $F = X$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote









                      Recall that if $S$ has no interior, then $partial S = barS setminus S^° = barS$. So let's show that $barS = overlineX setminus S = X$ if $S$ and its complement have no interior. Since



                      $$
                      barS = bigcap_S subseteq F\ textclosedF
                      $$



                      We ought to see that the only closed set containing $S$ is $X$. In effect, take $F$ closed that contains $S$. Now, $X setminus F$ is open and is contained in $X setminus S$ which has empty interior. Thus, $X setminus F$ is empty, and so $F = X$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      Recall that if $S$ has no interior, then $partial S = barS setminus S^° = barS$. So let's show that $barS = overlineX setminus S = X$ if $S$ and its complement have no interior. Since



                      $$
                      barS = bigcap_S subseteq F\ textclosedF
                      $$



                      We ought to see that the only closed set containing $S$ is $X$. In effect, take $F$ closed that contains $S$. Now, $X setminus F$ is open and is contained in $X setminus S$ which has empty interior. Thus, $X setminus F$ is empty, and so $F = X$.







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                      answered Sep 7 at 4:55









                      Guido A.

                      4,786728




                      4,786728




















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                          Denote the set by $A$. Let $xin X$ and let $B$ be an arbitrary ball around $x$. If $xin A$, then $Bnotsubset A$ because otherwise $xinoperatornameint(A)$. Hence, $B$ contains $xin A$ and a point from $Xbackslash A$. As $B$ was arbitrary, $xinpartial A$. If $xnotin A$, the above reasoning applies with the roles of $A$ and $Xbackslash A$ exchanged.




                          Other approach: By definition of the boundary, $partial A = partial(Xbackslash A)$. For any set $S$ we have $overline S = partial Scupoperatornameint(S)$. So, $Asubsetoverline A = partial A$ and, similarly, $Xbackslash Asubsetpartial(Xbackslash A)$. So, $X = Acup(Xbackslash A)subsetpartial A$.






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                            down vote













                            Denote the set by $A$. Let $xin X$ and let $B$ be an arbitrary ball around $x$. If $xin A$, then $Bnotsubset A$ because otherwise $xinoperatornameint(A)$. Hence, $B$ contains $xin A$ and a point from $Xbackslash A$. As $B$ was arbitrary, $xinpartial A$. If $xnotin A$, the above reasoning applies with the roles of $A$ and $Xbackslash A$ exchanged.




                            Other approach: By definition of the boundary, $partial A = partial(Xbackslash A)$. For any set $S$ we have $overline S = partial Scupoperatornameint(S)$. So, $Asubsetoverline A = partial A$ and, similarly, $Xbackslash Asubsetpartial(Xbackslash A)$. So, $X = Acup(Xbackslash A)subsetpartial A$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer
























                              up vote
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                              up vote
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                              down vote









                              Denote the set by $A$. Let $xin X$ and let $B$ be an arbitrary ball around $x$. If $xin A$, then $Bnotsubset A$ because otherwise $xinoperatornameint(A)$. Hence, $B$ contains $xin A$ and a point from $Xbackslash A$. As $B$ was arbitrary, $xinpartial A$. If $xnotin A$, the above reasoning applies with the roles of $A$ and $Xbackslash A$ exchanged.




                              Other approach: By definition of the boundary, $partial A = partial(Xbackslash A)$. For any set $S$ we have $overline S = partial Scupoperatornameint(S)$. So, $Asubsetoverline A = partial A$ and, similarly, $Xbackslash Asubsetpartial(Xbackslash A)$. So, $X = Acup(Xbackslash A)subsetpartial A$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              Denote the set by $A$. Let $xin X$ and let $B$ be an arbitrary ball around $x$. If $xin A$, then $Bnotsubset A$ because otherwise $xinoperatornameint(A)$. Hence, $B$ contains $xin A$ and a point from $Xbackslash A$. As $B$ was arbitrary, $xinpartial A$. If $xnotin A$, the above reasoning applies with the roles of $A$ and $Xbackslash A$ exchanged.




                              Other approach: By definition of the boundary, $partial A = partial(Xbackslash A)$. For any set $S$ we have $overline S = partial Scupoperatornameint(S)$. So, $Asubsetoverline A = partial A$ and, similarly, $Xbackslash Asubsetpartial(Xbackslash A)$. So, $X = Acup(Xbackslash A)subsetpartial A$.







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                              edited Sep 7 at 5:47

























                              answered Sep 7 at 5:36









                              amsmath

                              2,670114




                              2,670114




















                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  In any topological space $X,$ for any $Asubset X$ we have $overline A=Int(A)cup partial (A).$ And of course with $A^c=Xbackslash A$ we have $overline A^c=Int(A^c)cup partial (A^c).$



                                  And $partial (A)=overline A cap overline A^c=partial (A^c)$ by definition of $partial.$



                                  So if $Int(A)=emptyset=Int (A^c)$ then $overline A=partial (A)=partial (A^c)=overline A^c.$ Hence $$X=Acup A^csubset overline Acup overline A^c=$$ $$=partial (A)cup partial (A^c)=partial (A)=partial (A^c)subset X.$$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote













                                    In any topological space $X,$ for any $Asubset X$ we have $overline A=Int(A)cup partial (A).$ And of course with $A^c=Xbackslash A$ we have $overline A^c=Int(A^c)cup partial (A^c).$



                                    And $partial (A)=overline A cap overline A^c=partial (A^c)$ by definition of $partial.$



                                    So if $Int(A)=emptyset=Int (A^c)$ then $overline A=partial (A)=partial (A^c)=overline A^c.$ Hence $$X=Acup A^csubset overline Acup overline A^c=$$ $$=partial (A)cup partial (A^c)=partial (A)=partial (A^c)subset X.$$






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                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote









                                      In any topological space $X,$ for any $Asubset X$ we have $overline A=Int(A)cup partial (A).$ And of course with $A^c=Xbackslash A$ we have $overline A^c=Int(A^c)cup partial (A^c).$



                                      And $partial (A)=overline A cap overline A^c=partial (A^c)$ by definition of $partial.$



                                      So if $Int(A)=emptyset=Int (A^c)$ then $overline A=partial (A)=partial (A^c)=overline A^c.$ Hence $$X=Acup A^csubset overline Acup overline A^c=$$ $$=partial (A)cup partial (A^c)=partial (A)=partial (A^c)subset X.$$






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      In any topological space $X,$ for any $Asubset X$ we have $overline A=Int(A)cup partial (A).$ And of course with $A^c=Xbackslash A$ we have $overline A^c=Int(A^c)cup partial (A^c).$



                                      And $partial (A)=overline A cap overline A^c=partial (A^c)$ by definition of $partial.$



                                      So if $Int(A)=emptyset=Int (A^c)$ then $overline A=partial (A)=partial (A^c)=overline A^c.$ Hence $$X=Acup A^csubset overline Acup overline A^c=$$ $$=partial (A)cup partial (A^c)=partial (A)=partial (A^c)subset X.$$







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                                      answered Sep 13 at 4:34









                                      DanielWainfleet

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