Pointwise, uniform, normal and $L^p$ convergence of $sumlimits_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series
$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$
My approach
Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:
$f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;
$lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$
$sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.
Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that
$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.
My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).
Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$
I try this:
$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$
and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.
Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.
Edit: This part
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$
is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
real-analysis sequences-and-series lp-spaces
 |Â
show 6 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series
$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$
My approach
Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:
$f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;
$lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$
$sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.
Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that
$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.
My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).
Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$
I try this:
$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$
and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.
Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.
Edit: This part
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$
is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
real-analysis sequences-and-series lp-spaces
What do you call « total convergence »?
â mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32
@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37
1
Another English way should be "normal convergence"
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39
Thanks @LucaMac.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42
1
Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
â zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27
 |Â
show 6 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series
$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$
My approach
Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:
$f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;
$lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$
$sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.
Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that
$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.
My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).
Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$
I try this:
$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$
and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.
Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.
Edit: This part
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$
is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
real-analysis sequences-and-series lp-spaces
Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series
$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$
My approach
Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:
$f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;
$lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$
$sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.
Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that
$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.
My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).
Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$
I try this:
$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$
and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.
Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.
Edit: This part
where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$
is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.
real-analysis sequences-and-series lp-spaces
real-analysis sequences-and-series lp-spaces
edited Sep 7 at 6:45
Did
243k23209444
243k23209444
asked Sep 6 at 20:29
Ixion
706419
706419
What do you call « total convergence »?
â mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32
@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37
1
Another English way should be "normal convergence"
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39
Thanks @LucaMac.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42
1
Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
â zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27
 |Â
show 6 more comments
What do you call « total convergence »?
â mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32
@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37
1
Another English way should be "normal convergence"
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39
Thanks @LucaMac.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42
1
Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
â zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27
What do you call « total convergence »?
â mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32
What do you call « total convergence »?
â mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32
@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37
@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37
1
1
Another English way should be "normal convergence"
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39
Another English way should be "normal convergence"
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39
Thanks @LucaMac.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42
Thanks @LucaMac.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42
1
1
Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
â zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27
Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
â zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27
 |Â
show 6 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.
$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.
edited Sep 6 at 21:19
Ixion
706419
706419
answered Sep 6 at 20:36
LucaMac
1,57315
1,57315
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
 |Â
show 1 more comment
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57
 |Â
show 1 more comment
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What do you call « total convergence »?
â mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32
@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37
1
Another English way should be "normal convergence"
â LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39
Thanks @LucaMac.
â Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42
1
Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
â zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27