Pointwise, uniform, normal and $L^p$ convergence of $sumlimits_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$

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up vote
0
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Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series



$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$



My approach



Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:



  1. $f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;


  2. $lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$


  3. $sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$


where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.



Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.



Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that



$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.



My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).



Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$



I try this:



$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$



and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.



Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.




Edit: This part




where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$




is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.










share|cite|improve this question























  • What do you call « total convergence »?
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Sep 6 at 20:32










  • @mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:37







  • 1




    Another English way should be "normal convergence"
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:39










  • Thanks @LucaMac.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:42






  • 1




    Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
    – zhw.
    Sep 6 at 21:27














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series



$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$



My approach



Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:



  1. $f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;


  2. $lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$


  3. $sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$


where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.



Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.



Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that



$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.



My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).



Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$



I try this:



$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$



and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.



Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.




Edit: This part




where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$




is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.










share|cite|improve this question























  • What do you call « total convergence »?
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Sep 6 at 20:32










  • @mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:37







  • 1




    Another English way should be "normal convergence"
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:39










  • Thanks @LucaMac.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:42






  • 1




    Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
    – zhw.
    Sep 6 at 21:27












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series



$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$



My approach



Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:



  1. $f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;


  2. $lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$


  3. $sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$


where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.



Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.



Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that



$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.



My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).



Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$



I try this:



$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$



and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.



Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.




Edit: This part




where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$




is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.










share|cite|improve this question















Study the pointwise, uniform, normal and on $L^p$ convergence of the series



$$sum_n=1^inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$$



My approach



Let $f_n(x)=frace^-nx1+n^2$, it's easy to show that:



  1. $f_n(x)ge 0 forall xinmathbbR$;


  2. $lim_nto+inftyf_n(x)=0 iff xin [0,+infty)$


  3. $sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2+1lesum_n=1^+inftyfrac1n^2<+infty$


where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$.



Now $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.



Let $S_k(x)=sum_n=1^kfrace^-nx1+n^2$ and $S(x)=sum_n=1^+inftyfrace^-nx1+n^2$, how can I prove that



$$|S-S_k|_p^p=int_0^+inftyleft|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^pdx longrightarrow 0$$ for $kto +infty$.



My first idea is to use the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem: if so, the limit operator goes trough the integral, hence $|S-S_k|_p^pto 0$ for $kto +infty$ because $$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1$$ is the tail of a convergent series (then $sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1to 0$ for $kto+infty$).



Now I have many troubles to find $g(x)$ such that $left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple g(x)$ and $g(x)in L^1([0,+infty))$



I try this:



$$sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1lesum_n=k+1^+inftye^-n x=frace^-(k+1)x1-e^-x$$



and now I'm stuck because of $1-e^-x$.



Every other inequalities I found are useless to find a proper $g(x)$. Maybe there is a easier way to solve this. Need help. Thanks.




Edit: This part




where the first inequality of (3) is true for $xge0$. From (3) I know
that the series is normally convergent on $[0,+infty)$, hence it
converges pointwise and uniformly on the $[0,+infty)$




is logically incorrect, in fact 3. must be $$3. frace^-nxn^2+1lefrac1n^2+1lefrac1n^2$$ and so $sumfrace^-nxn^2+1$ is a normal convergent series in $[0,+infty)$ because $sumfrac1n^2$ converges.







real-analysis sequences-and-series lp-spaces






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Sep 7 at 6:45









Did

243k23209444




243k23209444










asked Sep 6 at 20:29









Ixion

706419




706419











  • What do you call « total convergence »?
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Sep 6 at 20:32










  • @mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:37







  • 1




    Another English way should be "normal convergence"
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:39










  • Thanks @LucaMac.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:42






  • 1




    Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
    – zhw.
    Sep 6 at 21:27
















  • What do you call « total convergence »?
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Sep 6 at 20:32










  • @mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:37







  • 1




    Another English way should be "normal convergence"
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:39










  • Thanks @LucaMac.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:42






  • 1




    Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
    – zhw.
    Sep 6 at 21:27















What do you call « total convergence »?
– mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32




What do you call « total convergence »?
– mathcounterexamples.net
Sep 6 at 20:32












@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37





@mathcounterexamples.net Sorry, it's the translation of the italian expression: "convergenza totale". I know now that in English, the "total convergence" is called "Weierstrass M-test". More precisely, in Italy we say that a series $sum f_n(x)$ is "totalmente convergente" in a set $E$ if and only $exists (M_n)_nge 0$ such that $|f_n(x)|le M_n forall xin E$ and $sum M_n<+infty$.
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:37





1




1




Another English way should be "normal convergence"
– LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39




Another English way should be "normal convergence"
– LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:39












Thanks @LucaMac.
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42




Thanks @LucaMac.
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:42




1




1




Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
– zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27




Your reasoning for 3. is incorrect.
– zhw.
Sep 6 at 21:27










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:45










  • I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:47










  • That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:51










  • Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:52










  • Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:57











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:45










  • I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:47










  • That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:51










  • Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:52










  • Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:57















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:45










  • I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:47










  • That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:51










  • Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:52










  • Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:57













up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.






share|cite|improve this answer














$$left|sum_n=k+1^+inftyfrace^-nxn^2+1right|^ple e^-px cdot left(sum_ngeq 1frac1(n^2+1)right)^p = c^p cdot e^-px$$
And $$ int_0^+infty c^p cdot e^-px = fracc^pp < + infty $$
So you can use dominated convergence theorem and show the $L^p$ convergence.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 6 at 21:19









Ixion

706419




706419










answered Sep 6 at 20:36









LucaMac

1,57315




1,57315











  • I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:45










  • I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:47










  • That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:51










  • Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:52










  • Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:57

















  • I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:45










  • I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:47










  • That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:51










  • Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
    – LucaMac
    Sep 6 at 20:52










  • Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
    – Ixion
    Sep 6 at 20:57
















I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45




I'm trying to figure out how you did it (+1) anyway!
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:45












I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
– LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47




I just used $e^-nx leq e^-x$ for any $n geq 1$
– LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:47












That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51




That was ok. I didn't understand why in the second term of inequality (RHS) $nge 1$...but now is clear! Thank you so much! (I am a donkey)
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:51












Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
– LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52




Well, I just increased the number of things to sum. I had to do so because $g$ must not depend on $k$.
– LucaMac
Sep 6 at 20:52












Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57





Yes, you're right. Well done sir, chapeau! Can you use another name for the sum of $left[sum_nge 1frac1(n^2+1)right]^p$? $k$ and $k(p)$ can be confusing.
– Ixion
Sep 6 at 20:57


















 

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