Homomorphisms $V_4$ and $mathbbZ/4mathbbZ$

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How many homomorphisms exist between the integers modulo $4$ under addition, and the Klein-four-group? Also, how do I find them? Cheers.










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  • Do you want homomorphisms from $V_4$ to $mathbbZ_4$ or vice versa?
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:12










  • Both prefferably.
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:13






  • 1




    Well, you can use an argument on the orders of elements in $V_4$ and $mathbbZ_4$. If $f: G to H$ is a homomorphism, what can you tell about the order of $f(g)$ in $H$? Assuming that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:14










  • Then $|f(g)|=|g|$
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:17






  • 1




    No, that's not true. What is true is that |f(g)| divides |g|. I'll write an extended answer.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:18














up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1












How many homomorphisms exist between the integers modulo $4$ under addition, and the Klein-four-group? Also, how do I find them? Cheers.










share|cite|improve this question





















  • Do you want homomorphisms from $V_4$ to $mathbbZ_4$ or vice versa?
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:12










  • Both prefferably.
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:13






  • 1




    Well, you can use an argument on the orders of elements in $V_4$ and $mathbbZ_4$. If $f: G to H$ is a homomorphism, what can you tell about the order of $f(g)$ in $H$? Assuming that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:14










  • Then $|f(g)|=|g|$
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:17






  • 1




    No, that's not true. What is true is that |f(g)| divides |g|. I'll write an extended answer.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:18












up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





How many homomorphisms exist between the integers modulo $4$ under addition, and the Klein-four-group? Also, how do I find them? Cheers.










share|cite|improve this question













How many homomorphisms exist between the integers modulo $4$ under addition, and the Klein-four-group? Also, how do I find them? Cheers.







group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism






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asked Sep 7 at 6:09









JB071098

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  • Do you want homomorphisms from $V_4$ to $mathbbZ_4$ or vice versa?
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:12










  • Both prefferably.
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:13






  • 1




    Well, you can use an argument on the orders of elements in $V_4$ and $mathbbZ_4$. If $f: G to H$ is a homomorphism, what can you tell about the order of $f(g)$ in $H$? Assuming that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:14










  • Then $|f(g)|=|g|$
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:17






  • 1




    No, that's not true. What is true is that |f(g)| divides |g|. I'll write an extended answer.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:18
















  • Do you want homomorphisms from $V_4$ to $mathbbZ_4$ or vice versa?
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:12










  • Both prefferably.
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:13






  • 1




    Well, you can use an argument on the orders of elements in $V_4$ and $mathbbZ_4$. If $f: G to H$ is a homomorphism, what can you tell about the order of $f(g)$ in $H$? Assuming that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:14










  • Then $|f(g)|=|g|$
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:17






  • 1




    No, that's not true. What is true is that |f(g)| divides |g|. I'll write an extended answer.
    – stressed out
    Sep 7 at 6:18















Do you want homomorphisms from $V_4$ to $mathbbZ_4$ or vice versa?
– stressed out
Sep 7 at 6:12




Do you want homomorphisms from $V_4$ to $mathbbZ_4$ or vice versa?
– stressed out
Sep 7 at 6:12












Both prefferably.
– JB071098
Sep 7 at 6:13




Both prefferably.
– JB071098
Sep 7 at 6:13




1




1




Well, you can use an argument on the orders of elements in $V_4$ and $mathbbZ_4$. If $f: G to H$ is a homomorphism, what can you tell about the order of $f(g)$ in $H$? Assuming that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups.
– stressed out
Sep 7 at 6:14




Well, you can use an argument on the orders of elements in $V_4$ and $mathbbZ_4$. If $f: G to H$ is a homomorphism, what can you tell about the order of $f(g)$ in $H$? Assuming that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups.
– stressed out
Sep 7 at 6:14












Then $|f(g)|=|g|$
– JB071098
Sep 7 at 6:17




Then $|f(g)|=|g|$
– JB071098
Sep 7 at 6:17




1




1




No, that's not true. What is true is that |f(g)| divides |g|. I'll write an extended answer.
– stressed out
Sep 7 at 6:18




No, that's not true. What is true is that |f(g)| divides |g|. I'll write an extended answer.
– stressed out
Sep 7 at 6:18










4 Answers
4






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oldest

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up vote
2
down vote



accepted










$V_4=e,a,b,ab$ and $Z_4=0,1,2,3 $ and let $f:V_4 to Z_4$ be a homomorphism then $o(f(a)) vert o(a)$ then $f(a)=0 ,1$ similarly $f(b)=0,1$ so in this way u may get $4$ homomrphisms from $V_4 to Z_4$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks this is great
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:26

















up vote
2
down vote













The homomorphisms from $Bbb Z/nBbb Z$ to $G$, for an arbitrary group $G$,
correspond to the solutions of $a^n=e$ in $G$. The homomorphism corresponding
to such an $a$ takes $k$ to $a^k$.



So, how many solutions of $a^4=e$ are there in $V_4$?






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • There are 4 solutions
    – JB071098
    Sep 7 at 6:22










  • @JB071098 Exactly!
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Sep 7 at 6:24

















up vote
1
down vote













Suppose that $f: G to H$ and $o(a)$ denotes the order of $a$ in $G$. Assume that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups. We can write



$$e_H=f(e_G)=f(a^o(a))=(f(a))^o(a)$$
This implies that $o(f(a)) mid o(a)$. In general, if $g^n=e$ in a group and $g$ has finite order, then $o(g) | n$. You can prove this as an exercise but it's a well-known fact in algebra. The proof involves dividing $n$ by $o(g)$ using Euclid's algorithm and showing that $n=o(g)q+r$ implies that $r=0$ because $o(g)$ is the smallest exponent that gives identity.



Now suppose that $f: mathbbZ_4 to V_4$. We know that $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic. Hence, it suffices to see where $[1]_4$ is sent under $f$. You can check that there are no order restrictions here because all elements in $V_4$ are of order $2$ and $1$ which divide $4$. Hence, you can send $[1]_4$ to any of the elements $e,a,b,ab$ and check that you'll get four homomorphisms this way. Although, they look very similar to each other.



For the case when $f: V_4 to mathbbZ_4$, Sajan has already explained the idea I wrote in the comments wonderfully.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    There is no epimorphism $fcolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ because $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic but $mathbbV_4$ is not. There is no epimorphism $gcolonmathbbV_4tomathbbZ_4$ because $circ(bar1)=4 nmidcirc(a),forall a inmathbbV_4$,because the order of all non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$ is $2$



    Now, let $phicolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ be a homomorphism.



    The group $phi(mathbbZ_4)$ is a subgroup of $mathbbV_4$,so $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|$ divides $|mathbbV_4|$ i.e. $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1,2,4$



    $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|ne4$ because as mentioned above there is no epimorphism.



    If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1$,then it is the trivial homomorphism.



    If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=2$,then the $phi(bar1)=e$ and the other three elements of $mathbbZ_4$ map to the same non-identity element of $mathbbV_4$ and there are three different ways of doing that because there are only three non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$.



    All total $4$ homomorphisms are there from $mathbbZ_4$ to $mathbbV_4$.






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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      $V_4=e,a,b,ab$ and $Z_4=0,1,2,3 $ and let $f:V_4 to Z_4$ be a homomorphism then $o(f(a)) vert o(a)$ then $f(a)=0 ,1$ similarly $f(b)=0,1$ so in this way u may get $4$ homomrphisms from $V_4 to Z_4$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Thanks this is great
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:26














      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      $V_4=e,a,b,ab$ and $Z_4=0,1,2,3 $ and let $f:V_4 to Z_4$ be a homomorphism then $o(f(a)) vert o(a)$ then $f(a)=0 ,1$ similarly $f(b)=0,1$ so in this way u may get $4$ homomrphisms from $V_4 to Z_4$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Thanks this is great
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:26












      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted






      $V_4=e,a,b,ab$ and $Z_4=0,1,2,3 $ and let $f:V_4 to Z_4$ be a homomorphism then $o(f(a)) vert o(a)$ then $f(a)=0 ,1$ similarly $f(b)=0,1$ so in this way u may get $4$ homomrphisms from $V_4 to Z_4$.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      $V_4=e,a,b,ab$ and $Z_4=0,1,2,3 $ and let $f:V_4 to Z_4$ be a homomorphism then $o(f(a)) vert o(a)$ then $f(a)=0 ,1$ similarly $f(b)=0,1$ so in this way u may get $4$ homomrphisms from $V_4 to Z_4$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Sep 7 at 6:25









      sajan

      1087




      1087











      • Thanks this is great
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:26
















      • Thanks this is great
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:26















      Thanks this is great
      – JB071098
      Sep 7 at 6:26




      Thanks this is great
      – JB071098
      Sep 7 at 6:26










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The homomorphisms from $Bbb Z/nBbb Z$ to $G$, for an arbitrary group $G$,
      correspond to the solutions of $a^n=e$ in $G$. The homomorphism corresponding
      to such an $a$ takes $k$ to $a^k$.



      So, how many solutions of $a^4=e$ are there in $V_4$?






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • There are 4 solutions
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:22










      • @JB071098 Exactly!
        – Lord Shark the Unknown
        Sep 7 at 6:24














      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The homomorphisms from $Bbb Z/nBbb Z$ to $G$, for an arbitrary group $G$,
      correspond to the solutions of $a^n=e$ in $G$. The homomorphism corresponding
      to such an $a$ takes $k$ to $a^k$.



      So, how many solutions of $a^4=e$ are there in $V_4$?






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • There are 4 solutions
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:22










      • @JB071098 Exactly!
        – Lord Shark the Unknown
        Sep 7 at 6:24












      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      The homomorphisms from $Bbb Z/nBbb Z$ to $G$, for an arbitrary group $G$,
      correspond to the solutions of $a^n=e$ in $G$. The homomorphism corresponding
      to such an $a$ takes $k$ to $a^k$.



      So, how many solutions of $a^4=e$ are there in $V_4$?






      share|cite|improve this answer












      The homomorphisms from $Bbb Z/nBbb Z$ to $G$, for an arbitrary group $G$,
      correspond to the solutions of $a^n=e$ in $G$. The homomorphism corresponding
      to such an $a$ takes $k$ to $a^k$.



      So, how many solutions of $a^4=e$ are there in $V_4$?







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Sep 7 at 6:13









      Lord Shark the Unknown

      89.9k955117




      89.9k955117











      • There are 4 solutions
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:22










      • @JB071098 Exactly!
        – Lord Shark the Unknown
        Sep 7 at 6:24
















      • There are 4 solutions
        – JB071098
        Sep 7 at 6:22










      • @JB071098 Exactly!
        – Lord Shark the Unknown
        Sep 7 at 6:24















      There are 4 solutions
      – JB071098
      Sep 7 at 6:22




      There are 4 solutions
      – JB071098
      Sep 7 at 6:22












      @JB071098 Exactly!
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Sep 7 at 6:24




      @JB071098 Exactly!
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Sep 7 at 6:24










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Suppose that $f: G to H$ and $o(a)$ denotes the order of $a$ in $G$. Assume that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups. We can write



      $$e_H=f(e_G)=f(a^o(a))=(f(a))^o(a)$$
      This implies that $o(f(a)) mid o(a)$. In general, if $g^n=e$ in a group and $g$ has finite order, then $o(g) | n$. You can prove this as an exercise but it's a well-known fact in algebra. The proof involves dividing $n$ by $o(g)$ using Euclid's algorithm and showing that $n=o(g)q+r$ implies that $r=0$ because $o(g)$ is the smallest exponent that gives identity.



      Now suppose that $f: mathbbZ_4 to V_4$. We know that $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic. Hence, it suffices to see where $[1]_4$ is sent under $f$. You can check that there are no order restrictions here because all elements in $V_4$ are of order $2$ and $1$ which divide $4$. Hence, you can send $[1]_4$ to any of the elements $e,a,b,ab$ and check that you'll get four homomorphisms this way. Although, they look very similar to each other.



      For the case when $f: V_4 to mathbbZ_4$, Sajan has already explained the idea I wrote in the comments wonderfully.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        Suppose that $f: G to H$ and $o(a)$ denotes the order of $a$ in $G$. Assume that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups. We can write



        $$e_H=f(e_G)=f(a^o(a))=(f(a))^o(a)$$
        This implies that $o(f(a)) mid o(a)$. In general, if $g^n=e$ in a group and $g$ has finite order, then $o(g) | n$. You can prove this as an exercise but it's a well-known fact in algebra. The proof involves dividing $n$ by $o(g)$ using Euclid's algorithm and showing that $n=o(g)q+r$ implies that $r=0$ because $o(g)$ is the smallest exponent that gives identity.



        Now suppose that $f: mathbbZ_4 to V_4$. We know that $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic. Hence, it suffices to see where $[1]_4$ is sent under $f$. You can check that there are no order restrictions here because all elements in $V_4$ are of order $2$ and $1$ which divide $4$. Hence, you can send $[1]_4$ to any of the elements $e,a,b,ab$ and check that you'll get four homomorphisms this way. Although, they look very similar to each other.



        For the case when $f: V_4 to mathbbZ_4$, Sajan has already explained the idea I wrote in the comments wonderfully.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Suppose that $f: G to H$ and $o(a)$ denotes the order of $a$ in $G$. Assume that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups. We can write



          $$e_H=f(e_G)=f(a^o(a))=(f(a))^o(a)$$
          This implies that $o(f(a)) mid o(a)$. In general, if $g^n=e$ in a group and $g$ has finite order, then $o(g) | n$. You can prove this as an exercise but it's a well-known fact in algebra. The proof involves dividing $n$ by $o(g)$ using Euclid's algorithm and showing that $n=o(g)q+r$ implies that $r=0$ because $o(g)$ is the smallest exponent that gives identity.



          Now suppose that $f: mathbbZ_4 to V_4$. We know that $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic. Hence, it suffices to see where $[1]_4$ is sent under $f$. You can check that there are no order restrictions here because all elements in $V_4$ are of order $2$ and $1$ which divide $4$. Hence, you can send $[1]_4$ to any of the elements $e,a,b,ab$ and check that you'll get four homomorphisms this way. Although, they look very similar to each other.



          For the case when $f: V_4 to mathbbZ_4$, Sajan has already explained the idea I wrote in the comments wonderfully.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Suppose that $f: G to H$ and $o(a)$ denotes the order of $a$ in $G$. Assume that $G$ and $H$ are finite groups. We can write



          $$e_H=f(e_G)=f(a^o(a))=(f(a))^o(a)$$
          This implies that $o(f(a)) mid o(a)$. In general, if $g^n=e$ in a group and $g$ has finite order, then $o(g) | n$. You can prove this as an exercise but it's a well-known fact in algebra. The proof involves dividing $n$ by $o(g)$ using Euclid's algorithm and showing that $n=o(g)q+r$ implies that $r=0$ because $o(g)$ is the smallest exponent that gives identity.



          Now suppose that $f: mathbbZ_4 to V_4$. We know that $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic. Hence, it suffices to see where $[1]_4$ is sent under $f$. You can check that there are no order restrictions here because all elements in $V_4$ are of order $2$ and $1$ which divide $4$. Hence, you can send $[1]_4$ to any of the elements $e,a,b,ab$ and check that you'll get four homomorphisms this way. Although, they look very similar to each other.



          For the case when $f: V_4 to mathbbZ_4$, Sajan has already explained the idea I wrote in the comments wonderfully.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Sep 7 at 6:35

























          answered Sep 7 at 6:30









          stressed out

          3,6301431




          3,6301431




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              There is no epimorphism $fcolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ because $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic but $mathbbV_4$ is not. There is no epimorphism $gcolonmathbbV_4tomathbbZ_4$ because $circ(bar1)=4 nmidcirc(a),forall a inmathbbV_4$,because the order of all non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$ is $2$



              Now, let $phicolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ be a homomorphism.



              The group $phi(mathbbZ_4)$ is a subgroup of $mathbbV_4$,so $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|$ divides $|mathbbV_4|$ i.e. $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1,2,4$



              $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|ne4$ because as mentioned above there is no epimorphism.



              If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1$,then it is the trivial homomorphism.



              If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=2$,then the $phi(bar1)=e$ and the other three elements of $mathbbZ_4$ map to the same non-identity element of $mathbbV_4$ and there are three different ways of doing that because there are only three non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$.



              All total $4$ homomorphisms are there from $mathbbZ_4$ to $mathbbV_4$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                There is no epimorphism $fcolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ because $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic but $mathbbV_4$ is not. There is no epimorphism $gcolonmathbbV_4tomathbbZ_4$ because $circ(bar1)=4 nmidcirc(a),forall a inmathbbV_4$,because the order of all non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$ is $2$



                Now, let $phicolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ be a homomorphism.



                The group $phi(mathbbZ_4)$ is a subgroup of $mathbbV_4$,so $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|$ divides $|mathbbV_4|$ i.e. $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1,2,4$



                $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|ne4$ because as mentioned above there is no epimorphism.



                If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1$,then it is the trivial homomorphism.



                If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=2$,then the $phi(bar1)=e$ and the other three elements of $mathbbZ_4$ map to the same non-identity element of $mathbbV_4$ and there are three different ways of doing that because there are only three non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$.



                All total $4$ homomorphisms are there from $mathbbZ_4$ to $mathbbV_4$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  There is no epimorphism $fcolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ because $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic but $mathbbV_4$ is not. There is no epimorphism $gcolonmathbbV_4tomathbbZ_4$ because $circ(bar1)=4 nmidcirc(a),forall a inmathbbV_4$,because the order of all non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$ is $2$



                  Now, let $phicolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ be a homomorphism.



                  The group $phi(mathbbZ_4)$ is a subgroup of $mathbbV_4$,so $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|$ divides $|mathbbV_4|$ i.e. $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1,2,4$



                  $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|ne4$ because as mentioned above there is no epimorphism.



                  If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1$,then it is the trivial homomorphism.



                  If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=2$,then the $phi(bar1)=e$ and the other three elements of $mathbbZ_4$ map to the same non-identity element of $mathbbV_4$ and there are three different ways of doing that because there are only three non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$.



                  All total $4$ homomorphisms are there from $mathbbZ_4$ to $mathbbV_4$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  There is no epimorphism $fcolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ because $mathbbZ_4$ is cyclic but $mathbbV_4$ is not. There is no epimorphism $gcolonmathbbV_4tomathbbZ_4$ because $circ(bar1)=4 nmidcirc(a),forall a inmathbbV_4$,because the order of all non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$ is $2$



                  Now, let $phicolonmathbbZ_4tomathbbV_4$ be a homomorphism.



                  The group $phi(mathbbZ_4)$ is a subgroup of $mathbbV_4$,so $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|$ divides $|mathbbV_4|$ i.e. $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1,2,4$



                  $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|ne4$ because as mentioned above there is no epimorphism.



                  If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=1$,then it is the trivial homomorphism.



                  If $|phi(mathbbZ_4)|=2$,then the $phi(bar1)=e$ and the other three elements of $mathbbZ_4$ map to the same non-identity element of $mathbbV_4$ and there are three different ways of doing that because there are only three non-identity elements in $mathbbV_4$.



                  All total $4$ homomorphisms are there from $mathbbZ_4$ to $mathbbV_4$.







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                  answered Sep 7 at 7:25









                  Arjun Banerjee

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