How to prove this following $f_n$ is pointwise bounded?
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Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.
My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:
Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then
$f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.
$f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.
Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?
real-analysis general-topology
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Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.
My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:
Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then
$f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.
$f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.
Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?
real-analysis general-topology
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.
My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:
Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then
$f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.
$f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.
Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?
real-analysis general-topology
Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.
My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:
Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then
$f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.
$f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.
Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?
real-analysis general-topology
real-analysis general-topology
edited Sep 7 at 8:56
asked Sep 7 at 8:17
Indrajit Ghosh
879517
879517
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2 Answers
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Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
$$
|f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
$$
and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
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This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
$$
|f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
$$
and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
$$
|f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
$$
and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
$$
|f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
$$
and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.
Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
$$
|f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
$$
and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.
answered Sep 7 at 8:39
Rigel
10.4k11319
10.4k11319
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add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.
This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.
edited Sep 7 at 8:57
answered Sep 7 at 8:22
Kavi Rama Murthy
26.7k31438
26.7k31438
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
add a comment |Â
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
@IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
â Kavi Rama Murthy
Sep 7 at 8:55
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
Sorry sir....I've edited it....
â Indrajit Ghosh
Sep 7 at 8:57
add a comment |Â
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