How to prove this following $f_n$ is pointwise bounded?

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Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.




My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:




Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then



  1. $f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.


  2. $f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.




Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?










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    Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.




    My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:




    Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then



    1. $f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.


    2. $f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.




    Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
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      favorite









      up vote
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      down vote

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      Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.




      My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:




      Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then



      1. $f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.


      2. $f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.




      Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?










      share|cite|improve this question
















      Question. Let $f_n$ be a sequence of functions which are continuous over $[0,1]$ and continuously differentiable in $[0,1]$. Assume that $|f_n(x)|le1$ and that $|f_n'(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$ and for each positive integer $n$. Then prove that $f_n$ contains a subsequence which converges in $C[0,1]$.




      My Solution: Here I try to use the following theorem from Baby Rudin:




      Theorem. If $K$ is compact, if $f_n in C(K)$ for $n = 1,2,3,dots$ and if $f_n$ is pointwise bounded and equicontinuous o $K$, then



      1. $f_n$ is uniformly bounded on $K$.


      2. $f_n$ contains a uniformly convergent subsequence.




      Now using MVT and the given conditions I have managed to prove that $f_n$ is equicontinuous on $[0,1]$. Now I have to prove that $f_n$ is pointwise bounded. Now $|f_n(x)|le 1$ for all $x in (0,1)$. So I have to prove that $f_n(0)_n$ and $f_n(1)_n$ are bounded. How can I proceed now to prove these?







      real-analysis general-topology






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      edited Sep 7 at 8:56

























      asked Sep 7 at 8:17









      Indrajit Ghosh

      879517




      879517




















          2 Answers
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          Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
          $$
          |f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
          $$
          and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Sep 7 at 8:55











            • Sorry sir....I've edited it....
              – Indrajit Ghosh
              Sep 7 at 8:57










            Your Answer




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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
            $$
            |f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
            $$
            and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
              $$
              |f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
              $$
              and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted






                Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
                $$
                |f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
                $$
                and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Since $f_n$ is continuous in $[0,1]$ (and so is $|f_n|$), then
                $$
                |f_n(0)| = lim_xto 0 |f_n(x)| leq 1,
                $$
                and the same holds for $|f_n(1)|$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Sep 7 at 8:39









                Rigel

                10.4k11319




                10.4k11319




















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                    • @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
                      – Kavi Rama Murthy
                      Sep 7 at 8:55











                    • Sorry sir....I've edited it....
                      – Indrajit Ghosh
                      Sep 7 at 8:57














                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                    • @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
                      – Kavi Rama Murthy
                      Sep 7 at 8:55











                    • Sorry sir....I've edited it....
                      – Indrajit Ghosh
                      Sep 7 at 8:57












                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    This answer was posted before a correction was made by the OP. I don't know if you mis-typed the question but it is false as stated. Example, $f_n(x)=x^n$. However, if the hypothesis includes the condition $|f_n'(x)| leq 1$for all $n$ and $x$ then you argument works: just use $f_n(frac 1 2)-f_n(0)=int_0^1/2 f_n'(t) , dt$ to prove that $f_n(0)$ is bounded. Similarly, for $f_n(1)$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Sep 7 at 8:57

























                    answered Sep 7 at 8:22









                    Kavi Rama Murthy

                    26.7k31438




                    26.7k31438











                    • @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
                      – Kavi Rama Murthy
                      Sep 7 at 8:55











                    • Sorry sir....I've edited it....
                      – Indrajit Ghosh
                      Sep 7 at 8:57
















                    • @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
                      – Kavi Rama Murthy
                      Sep 7 at 8:55











                    • Sorry sir....I've edited it....
                      – Indrajit Ghosh
                      Sep 7 at 8:57















                    @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
                    – Kavi Rama Murthy
                    Sep 7 at 8:55





                    @IndrajitGhosh Please check what you have typed in the question. I don't see any derivatives in your question and that is why I gave the counter-example. However, I guessed you just missed a derivative so I gave a proof for the corrected version.
                    – Kavi Rama Murthy
                    Sep 7 at 8:55













                    Sorry sir....I've edited it....
                    – Indrajit Ghosh
                    Sep 7 at 8:57




                    Sorry sir....I've edited it....
                    – Indrajit Ghosh
                    Sep 7 at 8:57

















                     

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