$f_n$ absolutely continuous converging pointwise to $f$. Is $f$ of bounded variation and/or absolutely continuous?
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I'm trying to solve the following problem:
$f_n:[a,b] to mathbbR$ sequence of absolutely continuous functions converging pointwise to $f: [a,b] to mathbbR$. Say if $f$ is of bounded variation and/or absolutely continuous if:
a) $exists C : int_a^b |f_n'(x)|dx leq C ; forall n$
b) $exists g in L^1((a,b)): |f_n'| leq g text a.e. in (a,b) ; forall n$
My attempt:
Consider $a = x_0 < x_1 < cdots < x_N = b$.
Since $f_n$ are absolutely continuous, we have:
$$
f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1) = int_x_j-1^x_j f_n'(t)dt
$$
$$
|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| = lim_n to infty |f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt \
implies sum_j=1^N|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty sum_j=1^N int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt = lim_n to infty int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt
$$
Then, both $(a)$ and $(b)$ imply $f$ of bounded variation, since:
$$
(a) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq C \
(b) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq int_a^b g(t)dt < infty
$$
Is this right? However, I do not know how to proceed for the absolute continuity of $f$.
Can someone help? Thank you
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory bounded-variation absolute-continuity
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
$f_n:[a,b] to mathbbR$ sequence of absolutely continuous functions converging pointwise to $f: [a,b] to mathbbR$. Say if $f$ is of bounded variation and/or absolutely continuous if:
a) $exists C : int_a^b |f_n'(x)|dx leq C ; forall n$
b) $exists g in L^1((a,b)): |f_n'| leq g text a.e. in (a,b) ; forall n$
My attempt:
Consider $a = x_0 < x_1 < cdots < x_N = b$.
Since $f_n$ are absolutely continuous, we have:
$$
f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1) = int_x_j-1^x_j f_n'(t)dt
$$
$$
|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| = lim_n to infty |f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt \
implies sum_j=1^N|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty sum_j=1^N int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt = lim_n to infty int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt
$$
Then, both $(a)$ and $(b)$ imply $f$ of bounded variation, since:
$$
(a) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq C \
(b) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq int_a^b g(t)dt < infty
$$
Is this right? However, I do not know how to proceed for the absolute continuity of $f$.
Can someone help? Thank you
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory bounded-variation absolute-continuity
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
$f_n:[a,b] to mathbbR$ sequence of absolutely continuous functions converging pointwise to $f: [a,b] to mathbbR$. Say if $f$ is of bounded variation and/or absolutely continuous if:
a) $exists C : int_a^b |f_n'(x)|dx leq C ; forall n$
b) $exists g in L^1((a,b)): |f_n'| leq g text a.e. in (a,b) ; forall n$
My attempt:
Consider $a = x_0 < x_1 < cdots < x_N = b$.
Since $f_n$ are absolutely continuous, we have:
$$
f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1) = int_x_j-1^x_j f_n'(t)dt
$$
$$
|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| = lim_n to infty |f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt \
implies sum_j=1^N|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty sum_j=1^N int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt = lim_n to infty int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt
$$
Then, both $(a)$ and $(b)$ imply $f$ of bounded variation, since:
$$
(a) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq C \
(b) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq int_a^b g(t)dt < infty
$$
Is this right? However, I do not know how to proceed for the absolute continuity of $f$.
Can someone help? Thank you
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory bounded-variation absolute-continuity
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
$f_n:[a,b] to mathbbR$ sequence of absolutely continuous functions converging pointwise to $f: [a,b] to mathbbR$. Say if $f$ is of bounded variation and/or absolutely continuous if:
a) $exists C : int_a^b |f_n'(x)|dx leq C ; forall n$
b) $exists g in L^1((a,b)): |f_n'| leq g text a.e. in (a,b) ; forall n$
My attempt:
Consider $a = x_0 < x_1 < cdots < x_N = b$.
Since $f_n$ are absolutely continuous, we have:
$$
f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1) = int_x_j-1^x_j f_n'(t)dt
$$
$$
|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| = lim_n to infty |f_n(x_j)-f_n(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt \
implies sum_j=1^N|f(x_j) - f(x_j-1)| leq lim_n to infty sum_j=1^N int_x_j-1^x_j |f_n'(t)|dt = lim_n to infty int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt
$$
Then, both $(a)$ and $(b)$ imply $f$ of bounded variation, since:
$$
(a) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq C \
(b) implies int_a^b |f_n'(t)|dt leq int_a^b g(t)dt < infty
$$
Is this right? However, I do not know how to proceed for the absolute continuity of $f$.
Can someone help? Thank you
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory bounded-variation absolute-continuity
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory bounded-variation absolute-continuity
asked Sep 7 at 10:27
user3669039
667
667
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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up vote
1
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Hints: For (a), consider $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. For (b), you need to use very similar arguments as above, just with intervals whose length sum $|I|$ is small, and remember that the Lebesgue integral is absolutely continuous, i.e. for all $epsilon>0$ you can find $delta>0$ such that $|I|<delta$ implies $int_I g(t)dt<epsilon$.
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
A little bit of measure theory easily gives absolute continuity of $f$. We have $sum |f_n(y_i)-f_n(x_i)|=|int _x_i^y_i f_n'(t) dt| leq int _x_i^y_i g(t) dt$. Now use the fact that given $epsilon >0$ there exist $delta >0$ such that $int_A g(t), dt <epsilon$ whenever $m(A) <delta$ where $m$ is Lebesgue measure. Take $A$ to be union of the intervals $(x_i,y_i)$. You will get uniform absolute continuity of the $f_n$'s from this and letting $n to infty$ completes the proof.
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Hints: For (a), consider $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. For (b), you need to use very similar arguments as above, just with intervals whose length sum $|I|$ is small, and remember that the Lebesgue integral is absolutely continuous, i.e. for all $epsilon>0$ you can find $delta>0$ such that $|I|<delta$ implies $int_I g(t)dt<epsilon$.
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Hints: For (a), consider $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. For (b), you need to use very similar arguments as above, just with intervals whose length sum $|I|$ is small, and remember that the Lebesgue integral is absolutely continuous, i.e. for all $epsilon>0$ you can find $delta>0$ such that $|I|<delta$ implies $int_I g(t)dt<epsilon$.
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Hints: For (a), consider $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. For (b), you need to use very similar arguments as above, just with intervals whose length sum $|I|$ is small, and remember that the Lebesgue integral is absolutely continuous, i.e. for all $epsilon>0$ you can find $delta>0$ such that $|I|<delta$ implies $int_I g(t)dt<epsilon$.
Hints: For (a), consider $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. For (b), you need to use very similar arguments as above, just with intervals whose length sum $|I|$ is small, and remember that the Lebesgue integral is absolutely continuous, i.e. for all $epsilon>0$ you can find $delta>0$ such that $|I|<delta$ implies $int_I g(t)dt<epsilon$.
answered Sep 7 at 11:13
Kusma
3,415218
3,415218
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
add a comment |Â
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
your comment was really helpful, it led me to the answer provided by Kavi Rama Murthy, thank you.
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:46
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Following your hint: $f_n(x) = x^n$ is a sequence of absolutely continuous functions satisfying (a) that converges to a function that is discontinuous (hence cannot be absolutely continuous).
â user3669039
Sep 7 at 11:52
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
Yes. If you want an example with a continuous-but-not-absolutely continuous limit function, use an approximation sequence for the devils's staircase / Cantor function instead.
â Kusma
Sep 7 at 12:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
A little bit of measure theory easily gives absolute continuity of $f$. We have $sum |f_n(y_i)-f_n(x_i)|=|int _x_i^y_i f_n'(t) dt| leq int _x_i^y_i g(t) dt$. Now use the fact that given $epsilon >0$ there exist $delta >0$ such that $int_A g(t), dt <epsilon$ whenever $m(A) <delta$ where $m$ is Lebesgue measure. Take $A$ to be union of the intervals $(x_i,y_i)$. You will get uniform absolute continuity of the $f_n$'s from this and letting $n to infty$ completes the proof.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
A little bit of measure theory easily gives absolute continuity of $f$. We have $sum |f_n(y_i)-f_n(x_i)|=|int _x_i^y_i f_n'(t) dt| leq int _x_i^y_i g(t) dt$. Now use the fact that given $epsilon >0$ there exist $delta >0$ such that $int_A g(t), dt <epsilon$ whenever $m(A) <delta$ where $m$ is Lebesgue measure. Take $A$ to be union of the intervals $(x_i,y_i)$. You will get uniform absolute continuity of the $f_n$'s from this and letting $n to infty$ completes the proof.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
A little bit of measure theory easily gives absolute continuity of $f$. We have $sum |f_n(y_i)-f_n(x_i)|=|int _x_i^y_i f_n'(t) dt| leq int _x_i^y_i g(t) dt$. Now use the fact that given $epsilon >0$ there exist $delta >0$ such that $int_A g(t), dt <epsilon$ whenever $m(A) <delta$ where $m$ is Lebesgue measure. Take $A$ to be union of the intervals $(x_i,y_i)$. You will get uniform absolute continuity of the $f_n$'s from this and letting $n to infty$ completes the proof.
A little bit of measure theory easily gives absolute continuity of $f$. We have $sum |f_n(y_i)-f_n(x_i)|=|int _x_i^y_i f_n'(t) dt| leq int _x_i^y_i g(t) dt$. Now use the fact that given $epsilon >0$ there exist $delta >0$ such that $int_A g(t), dt <epsilon$ whenever $m(A) <delta$ where $m$ is Lebesgue measure. Take $A$ to be union of the intervals $(x_i,y_i)$. You will get uniform absolute continuity of the $f_n$'s from this and letting $n to infty$ completes the proof.
answered Sep 7 at 11:43
Kavi Rama Murthy
26.7k31438
26.7k31438
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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