Derive the Cramer-Rao lower bound (CRLB) for the variance of any unbiased for estimator of $lambda$ for random sample from Poisson ($lambda$)

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Let $Y_1,...,Y_n$ be a random sample from Poisson ($lambda$).



Derive the Cramer-Rao lower bound (CRLB) for the variance of any unbiased for estimator of $lambda$.




I first set



$$L(lambda) = prod_i=1^n fraclambda^y e^-lambday! = fraclambda^prod_i = 1^n y_i e^-lambda nprod_i=1^n y_i ! .$$



Then setting it to $ln$ form:



$$ln L(lambda) = fracsum_i=1^n y_i ln(lambda) - lambda nsum_i=1^n y_i !.$$



Can anyone please confirm what I am doing is correct before I move forward?










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite













    Let $Y_1,...,Y_n$ be a random sample from Poisson ($lambda$).



    Derive the Cramer-Rao lower bound (CRLB) for the variance of any unbiased for estimator of $lambda$.




    I first set



    $$L(lambda) = prod_i=1^n fraclambda^y e^-lambday! = fraclambda^prod_i = 1^n y_i e^-lambda nprod_i=1^n y_i ! .$$



    Then setting it to $ln$ form:



    $$ln L(lambda) = fracsum_i=1^n y_i ln(lambda) - lambda nsum_i=1^n y_i !.$$



    Can anyone please confirm what I am doing is correct before I move forward?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      Let $Y_1,...,Y_n$ be a random sample from Poisson ($lambda$).



      Derive the Cramer-Rao lower bound (CRLB) for the variance of any unbiased for estimator of $lambda$.




      I first set



      $$L(lambda) = prod_i=1^n fraclambda^y e^-lambday! = fraclambda^prod_i = 1^n y_i e^-lambda nprod_i=1^n y_i ! .$$



      Then setting it to $ln$ form:



      $$ln L(lambda) = fracsum_i=1^n y_i ln(lambda) - lambda nsum_i=1^n y_i !.$$



      Can anyone please confirm what I am doing is correct before I move forward?










      share|cite|improve this question
















      Let $Y_1,...,Y_n$ be a random sample from Poisson ($lambda$).



      Derive the Cramer-Rao lower bound (CRLB) for the variance of any unbiased for estimator of $lambda$.




      I first set



      $$L(lambda) = prod_i=1^n fraclambda^y e^-lambday! = fraclambda^prod_i = 1^n y_i e^-lambda nprod_i=1^n y_i ! .$$



      Then setting it to $ln$ form:



      $$ln L(lambda) = fracsum_i=1^n y_i ln(lambda) - lambda nsum_i=1^n y_i !.$$



      Can anyone please confirm what I am doing is correct before I move forward?







      probability statistics probability-theory probability-distributions






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      edited Sep 9 at 9:07









      Jendrik Stelzner

      7,69121137




      7,69121137










      asked Apr 26 '14 at 20:17









      afsdf dfsaf

      59611234




      59611234




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The likelihood function is
          $$
          L(lambda)=left(prod_i=1^n frac1y_i!right)lambda^sum_i=1^n y_ie^-lambda n
          $$
          and hence the log-likelihood function becomes
          $$
          l(lambda)=-lambda n+log(lambda)sum_i=1^n y_i-sum_i=1^n log(y_i!).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 26 '14 at 23:37










          • The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 7:47










          • For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:03










          • No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:12










          • so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:16










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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The likelihood function is
          $$
          L(lambda)=left(prod_i=1^n frac1y_i!right)lambda^sum_i=1^n y_ie^-lambda n
          $$
          and hence the log-likelihood function becomes
          $$
          l(lambda)=-lambda n+log(lambda)sum_i=1^n y_i-sum_i=1^n log(y_i!).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 26 '14 at 23:37










          • The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 7:47










          • For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:03










          • No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:12










          • so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:16














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The likelihood function is
          $$
          L(lambda)=left(prod_i=1^n frac1y_i!right)lambda^sum_i=1^n y_ie^-lambda n
          $$
          and hence the log-likelihood function becomes
          $$
          l(lambda)=-lambda n+log(lambda)sum_i=1^n y_i-sum_i=1^n log(y_i!).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 26 '14 at 23:37










          • The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 7:47










          • For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:03










          • No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:12










          • so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:16












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          The likelihood function is
          $$
          L(lambda)=left(prod_i=1^n frac1y_i!right)lambda^sum_i=1^n y_ie^-lambda n
          $$
          and hence the log-likelihood function becomes
          $$
          l(lambda)=-lambda n+log(lambda)sum_i=1^n y_i-sum_i=1^n log(y_i!).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          The likelihood function is
          $$
          L(lambda)=left(prod_i=1^n frac1y_i!right)lambda^sum_i=1^n y_ie^-lambda n
          $$
          and hence the log-likelihood function becomes
          $$
          l(lambda)=-lambda n+log(lambda)sum_i=1^n y_i-sum_i=1^n log(y_i!).
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Apr 26 '14 at 20:47









          Stefan Hansen

          20.3k73460




          20.3k73460











          • are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 26 '14 at 23:37










          • The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 7:47










          • For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:03










          • No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:12










          • so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:16
















          • are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 26 '14 at 23:37










          • The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 7:47










          • For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:03










          • No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
            – Stefan Hansen
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:12










          • so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
            – afsdf dfsaf
            Apr 27 '14 at 12:16















          are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
          – afsdf dfsaf
          Apr 26 '14 at 23:37




          are the following correct? $$fracd ln L(lambda)lambda = frac1lambda sum_i=1^n y_i - n$$ $$fracd^2 ln L(lambda)lambda = frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i $$ So $$E[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_i] = frac-1lambda^2 nbary$$
          – afsdf dfsaf
          Apr 26 '14 at 23:37












          The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
          – Stefan Hansen
          Apr 27 '14 at 7:47




          The mean of $y_i$ is $lambda$ not $y_i$ and hence the last is not correct.
          – Stefan Hansen
          Apr 27 '14 at 7:47












          For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
          – afsdf dfsaf
          Apr 27 '14 at 12:03




          For my last equation: $$Eleft[frac-1lambda^2 sum_i=1^n y_iright] = frac-1lambda^2 n lambda = frac-nlambda$$. Therefore, the CRLB is $frac-lambdan$, right?
          – afsdf dfsaf
          Apr 27 '14 at 12:03












          No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
          – Stefan Hansen
          Apr 27 '14 at 12:12




          No, the Cramer-Rao lower bound for the variance is certainly not negative. You're missing a minus-sign in the expression for the Fisher information.
          – Stefan Hansen
          Apr 27 '14 at 12:12












          so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
          – afsdf dfsaf
          Apr 27 '14 at 12:16




          so my answer is only off by a minus sign right?
          – afsdf dfsaf
          Apr 27 '14 at 12:16

















           

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