Doubt about definition of infinite limit and limit as x tends to infinity

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In the limits and continuity chapter in my textbook, the following definitions are given:



(1) For limit of f(x) as x tends to infinity:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ has the limit $L$ as $x$ approaches infinity and write $lim_xto infty f(x) = L$ if, for every number $epsilon > 0$ there exists a corresponding number $M>0$ such that for all $x>M, |f(x) - L| < epsilon$.



(2) For infinite limits:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ approaches infinity as $x$ approaches $x_0$, and write $lim_xto x_0 ƒ(x) = infty$, if for every number $B>0$ there exists a corresponding $delta > 0$ such that for all $x$,
$$0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies f(x) > B$$



What I don't understand is why the numbers M and B have to be greater than zero in the first and second definitions respectively. I think the definition would work without this added constraint, i.e. if M (and, similarly, B) is any real number.
So, I don't understand why this condition is present in the definitions.



Since I couldn't find any discussion on this topic anywhere on the net or in my book, I have asked this question.



What am I missing?










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  • 3




    You're right. The demands of $M$ and $B$ are positive are superfluous.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:25










  • @MathOverview, but then why are they included in the definitions?
    – Mr Reality
    Sep 9 at 13:30










  • I think it's just to stay consistent with the other limite definitions.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:35










  • @MathOverview You should write that as an answer.
    – Noah Schweber
    Sep 9 at 14:04














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












In the limits and continuity chapter in my textbook, the following definitions are given:



(1) For limit of f(x) as x tends to infinity:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ has the limit $L$ as $x$ approaches infinity and write $lim_xto infty f(x) = L$ if, for every number $epsilon > 0$ there exists a corresponding number $M>0$ such that for all $x>M, |f(x) - L| < epsilon$.



(2) For infinite limits:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ approaches infinity as $x$ approaches $x_0$, and write $lim_xto x_0 ƒ(x) = infty$, if for every number $B>0$ there exists a corresponding $delta > 0$ such that for all $x$,
$$0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies f(x) > B$$



What I don't understand is why the numbers M and B have to be greater than zero in the first and second definitions respectively. I think the definition would work without this added constraint, i.e. if M (and, similarly, B) is any real number.
So, I don't understand why this condition is present in the definitions.



Since I couldn't find any discussion on this topic anywhere on the net or in my book, I have asked this question.



What am I missing?










share|cite|improve this question

















  • 3




    You're right. The demands of $M$ and $B$ are positive are superfluous.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:25










  • @MathOverview, but then why are they included in the definitions?
    – Mr Reality
    Sep 9 at 13:30










  • I think it's just to stay consistent with the other limite definitions.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:35










  • @MathOverview You should write that as an answer.
    – Noah Schweber
    Sep 9 at 14:04












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











In the limits and continuity chapter in my textbook, the following definitions are given:



(1) For limit of f(x) as x tends to infinity:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ has the limit $L$ as $x$ approaches infinity and write $lim_xto infty f(x) = L$ if, for every number $epsilon > 0$ there exists a corresponding number $M>0$ such that for all $x>M, |f(x) - L| < epsilon$.



(2) For infinite limits:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ approaches infinity as $x$ approaches $x_0$, and write $lim_xto x_0 ƒ(x) = infty$, if for every number $B>0$ there exists a corresponding $delta > 0$ such that for all $x$,
$$0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies f(x) > B$$



What I don't understand is why the numbers M and B have to be greater than zero in the first and second definitions respectively. I think the definition would work without this added constraint, i.e. if M (and, similarly, B) is any real number.
So, I don't understand why this condition is present in the definitions.



Since I couldn't find any discussion on this topic anywhere on the net or in my book, I have asked this question.



What am I missing?










share|cite|improve this question













In the limits and continuity chapter in my textbook, the following definitions are given:



(1) For limit of f(x) as x tends to infinity:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ has the limit $L$ as $x$ approaches infinity and write $lim_xto infty f(x) = L$ if, for every number $epsilon > 0$ there exists a corresponding number $M>0$ such that for all $x>M, |f(x) - L| < epsilon$.



(2) For infinite limits:



We say that $ƒ(x)$ approaches infinity as $x$ approaches $x_0$, and write $lim_xto x_0 ƒ(x) = infty$, if for every number $B>0$ there exists a corresponding $delta > 0$ such that for all $x$,
$$0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies f(x) > B$$



What I don't understand is why the numbers M and B have to be greater than zero in the first and second definitions respectively. I think the definition would work without this added constraint, i.e. if M (and, similarly, B) is any real number.
So, I don't understand why this condition is present in the definitions.



Since I couldn't find any discussion on this topic anywhere on the net or in my book, I have asked this question.



What am I missing?







definition epsilon-delta constraints






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asked Sep 9 at 13:18









Mr Reality

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  • 3




    You're right. The demands of $M$ and $B$ are positive are superfluous.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:25










  • @MathOverview, but then why are they included in the definitions?
    – Mr Reality
    Sep 9 at 13:30










  • I think it's just to stay consistent with the other limite definitions.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:35










  • @MathOverview You should write that as an answer.
    – Noah Schweber
    Sep 9 at 14:04












  • 3




    You're right. The demands of $M$ and $B$ are positive are superfluous.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:25










  • @MathOverview, but then why are they included in the definitions?
    – Mr Reality
    Sep 9 at 13:30










  • I think it's just to stay consistent with the other limite definitions.
    – MathOverview
    Sep 9 at 13:35










  • @MathOverview You should write that as an answer.
    – Noah Schweber
    Sep 9 at 14:04







3




3




You're right. The demands of $M$ and $B$ are positive are superfluous.
– MathOverview
Sep 9 at 13:25




You're right. The demands of $M$ and $B$ are positive are superfluous.
– MathOverview
Sep 9 at 13:25












@MathOverview, but then why are they included in the definitions?
– Mr Reality
Sep 9 at 13:30




@MathOverview, but then why are they included in the definitions?
– Mr Reality
Sep 9 at 13:30












I think it's just to stay consistent with the other limite definitions.
– MathOverview
Sep 9 at 13:35




I think it's just to stay consistent with the other limite definitions.
– MathOverview
Sep 9 at 13:35












@MathOverview You should write that as an answer.
– Noah Schweber
Sep 9 at 14:04




@MathOverview You should write that as an answer.
– Noah Schweber
Sep 9 at 14:04















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