prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent

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I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
$$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.



Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).



Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)










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    up vote
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    I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
    $$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
    Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.



    Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).



    Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
      $$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
      Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.



      Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).



      Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)










      share|cite|improve this question













      I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
      $$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
      Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.



      Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).



      Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)







      real-analysis






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      asked Sep 9 at 9:48









      Florian Suess

      329110




      329110




















          4 Answers
          4






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          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
          So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
          So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
          and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
            – Florian Suess
            Sep 9 at 10:20











          • But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
            – Florian Suess
            Sep 9 at 10:21











          • No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
            – Florian Suess
            Sep 9 at 10:23










          • But yeah, thanks!
            – Florian Suess
            Sep 9 at 10:28










          • I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
            – Florian Suess
            Sep 9 at 10:39

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • You method is very nice!
            – Riemann
            Sep 9 at 12:06

















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
          $$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Hint:
            $sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















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              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes








              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              6
              down vote



              accepted










              For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
              So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
              So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
              and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:20











              • But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:21











              • No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:23










              • But yeah, thanks!
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:28










              • I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:39














              up vote
              6
              down vote



              accepted










              For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
              So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
              So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
              and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:20











              • But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:21











              • No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:23










              • But yeah, thanks!
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:28










              • I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:39












              up vote
              6
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              6
              down vote



              accepted






              For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
              So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
              So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
              and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
              So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
              So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
              and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Sep 9 at 10:02









              Riemann

              3,0881321




              3,0881321











              • Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:20











              • But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:21











              • No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:23










              • But yeah, thanks!
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:28










              • I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:39
















              • Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:20











              • But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:21











              • No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:23










              • But yeah, thanks!
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:28










              • I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
                – Florian Suess
                Sep 9 at 10:39















              Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:20





              Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:20













              But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:21





              But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:21













              No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:23




              No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:23












              But yeah, thanks!
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:28




              But yeah, thanks!
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:28












              I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:39




              I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
              – Florian Suess
              Sep 9 at 10:39










              up vote
              3
              down vote













              You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • You method is very nice!
                – Riemann
                Sep 9 at 12:06














              up vote
              3
              down vote













              You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • You method is very nice!
                – Riemann
                Sep 9 at 12:06












              up vote
              3
              down vote










              up vote
              3
              down vote









              You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Sep 9 at 10:29









              Kusma

              3,425219




              3,425219











              • You method is very nice!
                – Riemann
                Sep 9 at 12:06
















              • You method is very nice!
                – Riemann
                Sep 9 at 12:06















              You method is very nice!
              – Riemann
              Sep 9 at 12:06




              You method is very nice!
              – Riemann
              Sep 9 at 12:06










              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
              $$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
                $$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
                  $$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
                  $$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Sep 9 at 9:58









                  Bernard

                  112k636105




                  112k636105




















                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      Hint:
                      $sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        Hint:
                        $sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote









                          Hint:
                          $sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          Hint:
                          $sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Sep 9 at 9:59









                          Bernard

                          112k636105




                          112k636105










                          answered Sep 9 at 9:57









                          PackSciences

                          41616




                          41616



























                               

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