prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent
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I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
$$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.
Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).
Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)
real-analysis
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up vote
4
down vote
favorite
I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
$$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.
Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).
Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)
real-analysis
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
$$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.
Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).
Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)
real-analysis
I just proved $sumfracx^n(2n)!$ is convergent for all $x in mathbb R$. Define the function $f: mathbb R rightarrow mathbb R$ by
$$f(x) = sum_n=0^infty fracx^n(2n)!$$
Now the question says; prove that the series $sumfrac1f(k)$ is convergent.
Now I'm having difficulty understanding this question, do we sum up like $sum_k=0^inftyfrac1f(k)$ hence having to kinda deal with $f: mathbb N rightarrow mathbb R$ or is it something different? (I'm suspecting that to be honest, I mean what else could it really be).
Then after clarification, hints are preferred as this is test preparation :)
real-analysis
real-analysis
asked Sep 9 at 9:48
Florian Suess
329110
329110
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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up vote
6
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accepted
For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
3
down vote
You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
$$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hint:
$sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
6
down vote
accepted
For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
6
down vote
accepted
For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
6
down vote
accepted
up vote
6
down vote
accepted
For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.
For $xgeq 1$, $$frace^x+e^-x2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!.$$
So $$frace^sqrtx+e^-sqrtx2=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^n(2n)!.$$
So $$f(k)=frace^sqrtk+e^-sqrtk2,kgeq 1,$$
and the series $$sum frac1f(k)$$ is convergent.
answered Sep 9 at 10:02
Riemann
3,0881321
3,0881321
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
 |Â
show 1 more comment
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
Oh woah is that because exp $x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!$ right? Yeah our lecturer snuck that in, thought it was just this cool side fact.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:20
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
But then wouldn't that mean that $2e^x=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^2n(2n)!?$
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:21
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
No it wouldn't, disregard sorry.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:23
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
But yeah, thanks!
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:28
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
I would probably confine myself to using $frace^x2 = sumfracx^n(2n)!$. It seems simpler.
â Florian Suess
Sep 9 at 10:39
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
3
down vote
You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.
You can solve this without explicitly knowing what $f(k)$ is. Clearly you have for $k>0$ that $f(k)ge frack^24!$ so $frac1f(k)le frac24k^2$. Now you can use the comparison test and the fact that $sum_k=1^infty frac1k^2$ converges.
answered Sep 9 at 10:29
Kusma
3,425219
3,425219
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
add a comment |Â
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
You method is very nice!
â Riemann
Sep 9 at 12:06
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
$$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
$$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
$$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$
Yes, you sum up as $;sum_k=0^infty f(k)$. Explicitly, this is a double sum:
$$sum_k=0^infty Biggl(frac 1sum_n=0^infty frack^n(2n)!Biggr).$$
answered Sep 9 at 9:58
Bernard
112k636105
112k636105
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hint:
$sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hint:
$sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Hint:
$sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.
Hint:
$sum_k=0^+infty x^n/(2n)! = cosh(sqrtx)$ and $frac1coshsqrtx = operatornamesech sqrtx$ then use comparison test.
edited Sep 9 at 9:59
Bernard
112k636105
112k636105
answered Sep 9 at 9:57
PackSciences
41616
41616
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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