How to prove $int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!$?
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Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$
After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.
I guess so, but IâÂÂm confused about how to prove.
My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$
and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$
Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$
by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.
It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.
real-analysis complex-analysis limits analysis improper-integrals
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up vote
3
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Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$
After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.
I guess so, but IâÂÂm confused about how to prove.
My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$
and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$
Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$
by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.
It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.
real-analysis complex-analysis limits analysis improper-integrals
What does induction with integration by parts get you?
â Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42
2
Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
â Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53
WhatâÂÂs your proof of the first property you mentioned?
â João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$
After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.
I guess so, but IâÂÂm confused about how to prove.
My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$
and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$
Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$
by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.
It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.
real-analysis complex-analysis limits analysis improper-integrals
Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$
After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.
I guess so, but IâÂÂm confused about how to prove.
My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$
and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$
Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$
by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.
It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.
real-analysis complex-analysis limits analysis improper-integrals
real-analysis complex-analysis limits analysis improper-integrals
edited Sep 9 at 16:04
asked Sep 9 at 13:39
Antimonius
3187
3187
What does induction with integration by parts get you?
â Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42
2
Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
â Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53
WhatâÂÂs your proof of the first property you mentioned?
â João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42
add a comment |Â
What does induction with integration by parts get you?
â Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42
2
Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
â Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53
WhatâÂÂs your proof of the first property you mentioned?
â João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42
What does induction with integration by parts get you?
â Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42
What does induction with integration by parts get you?
â Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42
2
2
Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
â Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53
Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
â Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53
WhatâÂÂs your proof of the first property you mentioned?
â João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42
WhatâÂÂs your proof of the first property you mentioned?
â João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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I think you can go with this walk:
Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.
We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$
$f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$
for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$
$h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$
I think it done.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
I think you can go with this walk:
Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.
We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$
$f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$
for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$
$h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$
I think it done.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
I think you can go with this walk:
Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.
We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$
$f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$
for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$
$h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$
I think it done.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
I think you can go with this walk:
Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.
We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$
$f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$
for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$
$h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$
I think it done.
I think you can go with this walk:
Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.
We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$
$f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$
for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$
$h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$
I think it done.
edited Sep 9 at 18:22
J.G.
14.9k11626
14.9k11626
answered Sep 9 at 16:36
Igor Caetano Diniz
837
837
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What does induction with integration by parts get you?
â Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42
2
Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
â Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53
WhatâÂÂs your proof of the first property you mentioned?
â João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42