How to prove $int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!$?

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Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$

After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.

I guess so, but I’m confused about how to prove.

My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$

and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$



Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$

by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.

It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.










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  • What does induction with integration by parts get you?
    – Michael Burr
    Sep 9 at 13:42






  • 2




    Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
    – Stefan Lafon
    Sep 9 at 14:53










  • What’s your proof of the first property you mentioned?
    – João Ramos
    Sep 13 at 16:42














up vote
3
down vote

favorite
3












Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$

After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.

I guess so, but I’m confused about how to prove.

My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$

and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$



Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$

by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.

It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.










share|cite|improve this question























  • What does induction with integration by parts get you?
    – Michael Burr
    Sep 9 at 13:42






  • 2




    Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
    – Stefan Lafon
    Sep 9 at 14:53










  • What’s your proof of the first property you mentioned?
    – João Ramos
    Sep 13 at 16:42












up vote
3
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
3






3





Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$

After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.

I guess so, but I’m confused about how to prove.

My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$

and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$



Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$

by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.

It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.










share|cite|improve this question















Once I met a problem about limits: $$lim_nrightarrowinftyint_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx=1$$

After I proved it, I used Mathematica and discovered that the sequence $int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$ seems to be monotone increasing to its supremum $1$.

I guess so, but I’m confused about how to prove.

My question is: How to prove that $$int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdx<n!,quad forall nge 1$$

and the monotonity of $$int_0^infty e^-xfracln^nfrac1xn! dx$$



Additional: I have already proved that $$lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(n!-int_0^infty e^-xln^n frac1xdxright)=lim_nrightarrowinfty frac2^n+1n!left(int_0^1 left(1-e^-xright)ln^nfrac1x dx-int_1^infty e^-xln^nfrac1x dxright)=1$$

by using the inequality $x-fracx^22le 1-e^-xle x$ and $ln^n x<n! xleft(xge 1right)$.

It can indicate that $1-int_0^infty e^-xfracln^n frac1xn! dx$ is EVENTUALLY (which means for sufficient large $n$) positive and monotone decreasing at $Oleft(2^-nright)$.







real-analysis complex-analysis limits analysis improper-integrals






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edited Sep 9 at 16:04

























asked Sep 9 at 13:39









Antimonius

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  • What does induction with integration by parts get you?
    – Michael Burr
    Sep 9 at 13:42






  • 2




    Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
    – Stefan Lafon
    Sep 9 at 14:53










  • What’s your proof of the first property you mentioned?
    – João Ramos
    Sep 13 at 16:42
















  • What does induction with integration by parts get you?
    – Michael Burr
    Sep 9 at 13:42






  • 2




    Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
    – Stefan Lafon
    Sep 9 at 14:53










  • What’s your proof of the first property you mentioned?
    – João Ramos
    Sep 13 at 16:42















What does induction with integration by parts get you?
– Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42




What does induction with integration by parts get you?
– Michael Burr
Sep 9 at 13:42




2




2




Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
– Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53




Isn't the integral already equal to 1 for n=0?
– Stefan Lafon
Sep 9 at 14:53












What’s your proof of the first property you mentioned?
– João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42




What’s your proof of the first property you mentioned?
– João Ramos
Sep 13 at 16:42










1 Answer
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I think you can go with this walk:



Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.



We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$




$f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$




for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$



$h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$



I think it done.






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    up vote
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    I think you can go with this walk:



    Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.



    We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$




    $f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$




    for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$



    $h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$



    I think it done.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      I think you can go with this walk:



      Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.



      We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$




      $f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$




      for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$



      $h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$



      I think it done.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        I think you can go with this walk:



        Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.



        We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$




        $f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$




        for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$



        $h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$



        I think it done.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        I think you can go with this walk:



        Let be $f(x) = e^-x ln^nfrac1x$ consider the function $g(x) = e^-xx^n$.



        We know that $ int_0^infty g(x) dx = int_0^inftye^-xx^n dx = Gamma(n+1) = n!$




        $f(x) < g(x) Rightarrow int_0^infty f(x) dx < int_0^infty g(x) dx = n!$




        for proving this, we need to prove that $ln^n frac1x< x^n$. So, let be $h(x) = x^n - ln ^n frac1x$



        $h'(x)> 0 Rightarrow n x^n-1 - (n ln^n-1(frac1x))frac1frac1x(-frac1x^2) = n(x^n-1 + frac1xln^n-1(frac1x)) > 0 Rightarrow x^n > (-1)^n-1 ln ^n-1x$



        I think it done.







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        edited Sep 9 at 18:22









        J.G.

        14.9k11626




        14.9k11626










        answered Sep 9 at 16:36









        Igor Caetano Diniz

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