Example of sequence of function that monotone bounded but not uniformly convergent

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My attempt is $f_n(x) = x/n$ but I'm stuck here.







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  • A caution on communication: You did not specify whether you mean (i) each $f_n$ is a monotone function, or (ii) each sequence $(f_n(x))_xin Bbb N$ is a monotone sequence or (iii) both (i) and (ii). And you did not specify which possible domain(s) for the $f_n $.... In this subject, when asking a Q it is better to use more words than less, and to divide what you say into separate very short sentences and clauses. .English grammar (what little there is of it) is slippery .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:28











  • If the domain of each $f_n$ is $Bbb R$ then your attempt is valid.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:32














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












My attempt is $f_n(x) = x/n$ but I'm stuck here.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • A caution on communication: You did not specify whether you mean (i) each $f_n$ is a monotone function, or (ii) each sequence $(f_n(x))_xin Bbb N$ is a monotone sequence or (iii) both (i) and (ii). And you did not specify which possible domain(s) for the $f_n $.... In this subject, when asking a Q it is better to use more words than less, and to divide what you say into separate very short sentences and clauses. .English grammar (what little there is of it) is slippery .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:28











  • If the domain of each $f_n$ is $Bbb R$ then your attempt is valid.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:32












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











My attempt is $f_n(x) = x/n$ but I'm stuck here.







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My attempt is $f_n(x) = x/n$ but I'm stuck here.









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edited Aug 29 at 3:59









David G. Stork

8,10421232




8,10421232










asked Aug 29 at 3:57









zainudin saputra

52




52











  • A caution on communication: You did not specify whether you mean (i) each $f_n$ is a monotone function, or (ii) each sequence $(f_n(x))_xin Bbb N$ is a monotone sequence or (iii) both (i) and (ii). And you did not specify which possible domain(s) for the $f_n $.... In this subject, when asking a Q it is better to use more words than less, and to divide what you say into separate very short sentences and clauses. .English grammar (what little there is of it) is slippery .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:28











  • If the domain of each $f_n$ is $Bbb R$ then your attempt is valid.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:32
















  • A caution on communication: You did not specify whether you mean (i) each $f_n$ is a monotone function, or (ii) each sequence $(f_n(x))_xin Bbb N$ is a monotone sequence or (iii) both (i) and (ii). And you did not specify which possible domain(s) for the $f_n $.... In this subject, when asking a Q it is better to use more words than less, and to divide what you say into separate very short sentences and clauses. .English grammar (what little there is of it) is slippery .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:28











  • If the domain of each $f_n$ is $Bbb R$ then your attempt is valid.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 29 at 10:32















A caution on communication: You did not specify whether you mean (i) each $f_n$ is a monotone function, or (ii) each sequence $(f_n(x))_xin Bbb N$ is a monotone sequence or (iii) both (i) and (ii). And you did not specify which possible domain(s) for the $f_n $.... In this subject, when asking a Q it is better to use more words than less, and to divide what you say into separate very short sentences and clauses. .English grammar (what little there is of it) is slippery .
– DanielWainfleet
Aug 29 at 10:28





A caution on communication: You did not specify whether you mean (i) each $f_n$ is a monotone function, or (ii) each sequence $(f_n(x))_xin Bbb N$ is a monotone sequence or (iii) both (i) and (ii). And you did not specify which possible domain(s) for the $f_n $.... In this subject, when asking a Q it is better to use more words than less, and to divide what you say into separate very short sentences and clauses. .English grammar (what little there is of it) is slippery .
– DanielWainfleet
Aug 29 at 10:28













If the domain of each $f_n$ is $Bbb R$ then your attempt is valid.
– DanielWainfleet
Aug 29 at 10:32




If the domain of each $f_n$ is $Bbb R$ then your attempt is valid.
– DanielWainfleet
Aug 29 at 10:32










3 Answers
3






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0
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accepted










Classic example: on $[0,1]$, let
$$
f_n(x) = x^n,
$$
then each $f_n$ is increasing and bounded above by $1$, but $f_n$ is not uniformly convergent, since $lim f_n = mathbb 1_1(x);[x in [0,1]]$ is not continuous.



P.S. $(f_n(x))_1^infty$ are also monotonic numerical sequences for every $x in [0,1]$.






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    up vote
    1
    down vote













    HINT:
    Let
    $$
    f_n(x)=begincases
    1-frac1nx&text when $xin[0,1/n]$\
    0&text when $x>1/n$.
    endcases
    $$
    Can you prove the desired properties?






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
      – matt stokes
      Aug 29 at 4:16










    • @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
      – Przemysław Scherwentke
      Aug 29 at 4:18

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Similar to Przemyslaw Scherwentke's answer, you can try $(f_n(x))_n in mathbbN$ defined on $[0,infty)$, where
    beginalign*
    f_n(x) =
    begincases
    1 & text if x in [0,1/n]
    \
    0 & text if x > 1/n
    endcases.
    endalign*
    $f_n$ is decreasing and bounded for each $n$, and $f_n to f$ where
    beginalign*
    f(x) =
    begincases
    1 & text if x =0
    \
    0 & text if x >0
    endcases
    endalign*
    ($f$ also defined on $[0,infty)$). It should be easy to show that $f_n$ does not converge uniformly to $f$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      0
      down vote



      accepted










      Classic example: on $[0,1]$, let
      $$
      f_n(x) = x^n,
      $$
      then each $f_n$ is increasing and bounded above by $1$, but $f_n$ is not uniformly convergent, since $lim f_n = mathbb 1_1(x);[x in [0,1]]$ is not continuous.



      P.S. $(f_n(x))_1^infty$ are also monotonic numerical sequences for every $x in [0,1]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted










        Classic example: on $[0,1]$, let
        $$
        f_n(x) = x^n,
        $$
        then each $f_n$ is increasing and bounded above by $1$, but $f_n$ is not uniformly convergent, since $lim f_n = mathbb 1_1(x);[x in [0,1]]$ is not continuous.



        P.S. $(f_n(x))_1^infty$ are also monotonic numerical sequences for every $x in [0,1]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          Classic example: on $[0,1]$, let
          $$
          f_n(x) = x^n,
          $$
          then each $f_n$ is increasing and bounded above by $1$, but $f_n$ is not uniformly convergent, since $lim f_n = mathbb 1_1(x);[x in [0,1]]$ is not continuous.



          P.S. $(f_n(x))_1^infty$ are also monotonic numerical sequences for every $x in [0,1]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Classic example: on $[0,1]$, let
          $$
          f_n(x) = x^n,
          $$
          then each $f_n$ is increasing and bounded above by $1$, but $f_n$ is not uniformly convergent, since $lim f_n = mathbb 1_1(x);[x in [0,1]]$ is not continuous.



          P.S. $(f_n(x))_1^infty$ are also monotonic numerical sequences for every $x in [0,1]$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 29 at 6:22

























          answered Aug 29 at 4:17









          xbh

          3,232320




          3,232320




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              HINT:
              Let
              $$
              f_n(x)=begincases
              1-frac1nx&text when $xin[0,1/n]$\
              0&text when $x>1/n$.
              endcases
              $$
              Can you prove the desired properties?






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
                – matt stokes
                Aug 29 at 4:16










              • @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 29 at 4:18














              up vote
              1
              down vote













              HINT:
              Let
              $$
              f_n(x)=begincases
              1-frac1nx&text when $xin[0,1/n]$\
              0&text when $x>1/n$.
              endcases
              $$
              Can you prove the desired properties?






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
                – matt stokes
                Aug 29 at 4:16










              • @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 29 at 4:18












              up vote
              1
              down vote










              up vote
              1
              down vote









              HINT:
              Let
              $$
              f_n(x)=begincases
              1-frac1nx&text when $xin[0,1/n]$\
              0&text when $x>1/n$.
              endcases
              $$
              Can you prove the desired properties?






              share|cite|improve this answer














              HINT:
              Let
              $$
              f_n(x)=begincases
              1-frac1nx&text when $xin[0,1/n]$\
              0&text when $x>1/n$.
              endcases
              $$
              Can you prove the desired properties?







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Aug 29 at 4:17

























              answered Aug 29 at 4:09









              Przemysław Scherwentke

              11.8k52751




              11.8k52751











              • Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
                – matt stokes
                Aug 29 at 4:16










              • @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 29 at 4:18
















              • Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
                – matt stokes
                Aug 29 at 4:16










              • @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 29 at 4:18















              Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
              – matt stokes
              Aug 29 at 4:16




              Did you mean $f_n(x) = 0$ when $x notin [0, 1/n]$?
              – matt stokes
              Aug 29 at 4:16












              @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
              – Przemysław Scherwentke
              Aug 29 at 4:18




              @mattstokes Thank you! Corrected (for functions on $[0,infty)$).
              – Przemysław Scherwentke
              Aug 29 at 4:18










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Similar to Przemyslaw Scherwentke's answer, you can try $(f_n(x))_n in mathbbN$ defined on $[0,infty)$, where
              beginalign*
              f_n(x) =
              begincases
              1 & text if x in [0,1/n]
              \
              0 & text if x > 1/n
              endcases.
              endalign*
              $f_n$ is decreasing and bounded for each $n$, and $f_n to f$ where
              beginalign*
              f(x) =
              begincases
              1 & text if x =0
              \
              0 & text if x >0
              endcases
              endalign*
              ($f$ also defined on $[0,infty)$). It should be easy to show that $f_n$ does not converge uniformly to $f$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Similar to Przemyslaw Scherwentke's answer, you can try $(f_n(x))_n in mathbbN$ defined on $[0,infty)$, where
                beginalign*
                f_n(x) =
                begincases
                1 & text if x in [0,1/n]
                \
                0 & text if x > 1/n
                endcases.
                endalign*
                $f_n$ is decreasing and bounded for each $n$, and $f_n to f$ where
                beginalign*
                f(x) =
                begincases
                1 & text if x =0
                \
                0 & text if x >0
                endcases
                endalign*
                ($f$ also defined on $[0,infty)$). It should be easy to show that $f_n$ does not converge uniformly to $f$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Similar to Przemyslaw Scherwentke's answer, you can try $(f_n(x))_n in mathbbN$ defined on $[0,infty)$, where
                  beginalign*
                  f_n(x) =
                  begincases
                  1 & text if x in [0,1/n]
                  \
                  0 & text if x > 1/n
                  endcases.
                  endalign*
                  $f_n$ is decreasing and bounded for each $n$, and $f_n to f$ where
                  beginalign*
                  f(x) =
                  begincases
                  1 & text if x =0
                  \
                  0 & text if x >0
                  endcases
                  endalign*
                  ($f$ also defined on $[0,infty)$). It should be easy to show that $f_n$ does not converge uniformly to $f$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Similar to Przemyslaw Scherwentke's answer, you can try $(f_n(x))_n in mathbbN$ defined on $[0,infty)$, where
                  beginalign*
                  f_n(x) =
                  begincases
                  1 & text if x in [0,1/n]
                  \
                  0 & text if x > 1/n
                  endcases.
                  endalign*
                  $f_n$ is decreasing and bounded for each $n$, and $f_n to f$ where
                  beginalign*
                  f(x) =
                  begincases
                  1 & text if x =0
                  \
                  0 & text if x >0
                  endcases
                  endalign*
                  ($f$ also defined on $[0,infty)$). It should be easy to show that $f_n$ does not converge uniformly to $f$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 29 at 4:40









                  matt stokes

                  48029




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