Why is complex torus âtorusâ?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
The complex torus is the quotient group of $mathbbC^n$ over a lattice. What is intuition behind that causes us to call it "torus"?
group-theory differential-geometry
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
The complex torus is the quotient group of $mathbbC^n$ over a lattice. What is intuition behind that causes us to call it "torus"?
group-theory differential-geometry
Maybe not relevant but torus is used when "every coordinate loops over itself", like the meridian and parallel of a torus.
â Yves Daoust
Aug 29 at 10:06
3
In the case of $n=1$, it is homeomorphic to a torus
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
1
The same reason why we call $mathbb S^n$ the sphere, I guess.
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
According to wikipedia, it's because they are exactly, up to isomorphism, the complex manifolds whose underlying smooth structure is a torus.
â Saucy O'Path
Aug 29 at 10:07
Further to the point made by Yves, groups like SL($2$,$mathbbC$) and SL($n+1$,$mathbbC$) have a similar important subgroups isomorphic to, say, $mathbbC^*$ so the name torus is applied there, too.
â Kevin
Aug 29 at 10:10
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
The complex torus is the quotient group of $mathbbC^n$ over a lattice. What is intuition behind that causes us to call it "torus"?
group-theory differential-geometry
The complex torus is the quotient group of $mathbbC^n$ over a lattice. What is intuition behind that causes us to call it "torus"?
group-theory differential-geometry
asked Aug 29 at 10:01
Jerry
472213
472213
Maybe not relevant but torus is used when "every coordinate loops over itself", like the meridian and parallel of a torus.
â Yves Daoust
Aug 29 at 10:06
3
In the case of $n=1$, it is homeomorphic to a torus
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
1
The same reason why we call $mathbb S^n$ the sphere, I guess.
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
According to wikipedia, it's because they are exactly, up to isomorphism, the complex manifolds whose underlying smooth structure is a torus.
â Saucy O'Path
Aug 29 at 10:07
Further to the point made by Yves, groups like SL($2$,$mathbbC$) and SL($n+1$,$mathbbC$) have a similar important subgroups isomorphic to, say, $mathbbC^*$ so the name torus is applied there, too.
â Kevin
Aug 29 at 10:10
add a comment |Â
Maybe not relevant but torus is used when "every coordinate loops over itself", like the meridian and parallel of a torus.
â Yves Daoust
Aug 29 at 10:06
3
In the case of $n=1$, it is homeomorphic to a torus
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
1
The same reason why we call $mathbb S^n$ the sphere, I guess.
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
According to wikipedia, it's because they are exactly, up to isomorphism, the complex manifolds whose underlying smooth structure is a torus.
â Saucy O'Path
Aug 29 at 10:07
Further to the point made by Yves, groups like SL($2$,$mathbbC$) and SL($n+1$,$mathbbC$) have a similar important subgroups isomorphic to, say, $mathbbC^*$ so the name torus is applied there, too.
â Kevin
Aug 29 at 10:10
Maybe not relevant but torus is used when "every coordinate loops over itself", like the meridian and parallel of a torus.
â Yves Daoust
Aug 29 at 10:06
Maybe not relevant but torus is used when "every coordinate loops over itself", like the meridian and parallel of a torus.
â Yves Daoust
Aug 29 at 10:06
3
3
In the case of $n=1$, it is homeomorphic to a torus
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
In the case of $n=1$, it is homeomorphic to a torus
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
1
1
The same reason why we call $mathbb S^n$ the sphere, I guess.
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
The same reason why we call $mathbb S^n$ the sphere, I guess.
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
According to wikipedia, it's because they are exactly, up to isomorphism, the complex manifolds whose underlying smooth structure is a torus.
â Saucy O'Path
Aug 29 at 10:07
According to wikipedia, it's because they are exactly, up to isomorphism, the complex manifolds whose underlying smooth structure is a torus.
â Saucy O'Path
Aug 29 at 10:07
Further to the point made by Yves, groups like SL($2$,$mathbbC$) and SL($n+1$,$mathbbC$) have a similar important subgroups isomorphic to, say, $mathbbC^*$ so the name torus is applied there, too.
â Kevin
Aug 29 at 10:10
Further to the point made by Yves, groups like SL($2$,$mathbbC$) and SL($n+1$,$mathbbC$) have a similar important subgroups isomorphic to, say, $mathbbC^*$ so the name torus is applied there, too.
â Kevin
Aug 29 at 10:10
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
Let's consider just $Bbb C^1$ for now, and let's let the lattice be the one generated by $1$ and $i$, so that $a + bi = c+di$ exactly when both $a-c$ and $b-d$ are integers; all other lattices are quite similar.
Now it should be clear that the lattice divides the plane into squares, and each square is identified with the single principal square whose vertices are $0, 1, i, 1+i$. For example, under the quotient operation, $ 3þ+ (2+pi)i$ is the same point as $ þ+ (pi-3)i$. So we can forget the rest of the plane: the quotient operation turns it into a square.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the north and south edges of the square, because $ x$ and $x+i$ are identified for each real $x$. We can imagine that we have rolled the square into a tube shape and glued together the two edges. The tube's boundaries are two circles, the left-side one consisting of the points $iy$ for each $yin Bbb R$ and
the right-side one consisting of the points $ 1+iy$ for each such $y$.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the west and east edges of the square,
because $iy$ and $1+iy$ are identified for each real number $y$. We can imagine that we should take the tube and bend it around and glue together the two circles. This makes a torus.
(If we imagine doing this in a three-dimensional space, the geometry of the tube is stretched as we bend it, and distances are not preserved. But this is only an artifact of our three-dimensional brains, and you should ignore it. If done properly, in a space of four or more dimensions, we can join together the two circles with no stretching, and the resulting torus is perfectly flat.)
So for the case of $Bbb C^1$ we do indeed get something that behaves just like the torus $Bbb T^2 = S^1times S^1$. The correspondence is quite exact. Say that $xin S^1$ and $yin S^1$. Then we have $langle x,yrangle in S^1times S^1$. To which point of the $Bbb C^1$ quotient space does this correspond? To $x+iy$, obviously! (Observe also that $S^1$ itself is the quotient space of $[0,1]$ under the identification that glues together the points $0$ and $1$.)
Similarly, when we do the same thing for $Bbb C^n$ we do get a space homeomorphic to $Bbb T^2n$ which is a direct product of $2n$ copies of the circle.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
Let's consider just $Bbb C^1$ for now, and let's let the lattice be the one generated by $1$ and $i$, so that $a + bi = c+di$ exactly when both $a-c$ and $b-d$ are integers; all other lattices are quite similar.
Now it should be clear that the lattice divides the plane into squares, and each square is identified with the single principal square whose vertices are $0, 1, i, 1+i$. For example, under the quotient operation, $ 3þ+ (2+pi)i$ is the same point as $ þ+ (pi-3)i$. So we can forget the rest of the plane: the quotient operation turns it into a square.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the north and south edges of the square, because $ x$ and $x+i$ are identified for each real $x$. We can imagine that we have rolled the square into a tube shape and glued together the two edges. The tube's boundaries are two circles, the left-side one consisting of the points $iy$ for each $yin Bbb R$ and
the right-side one consisting of the points $ 1+iy$ for each such $y$.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the west and east edges of the square,
because $iy$ and $1+iy$ are identified for each real number $y$. We can imagine that we should take the tube and bend it around and glue together the two circles. This makes a torus.
(If we imagine doing this in a three-dimensional space, the geometry of the tube is stretched as we bend it, and distances are not preserved. But this is only an artifact of our three-dimensional brains, and you should ignore it. If done properly, in a space of four or more dimensions, we can join together the two circles with no stretching, and the resulting torus is perfectly flat.)
So for the case of $Bbb C^1$ we do indeed get something that behaves just like the torus $Bbb T^2 = S^1times S^1$. The correspondence is quite exact. Say that $xin S^1$ and $yin S^1$. Then we have $langle x,yrangle in S^1times S^1$. To which point of the $Bbb C^1$ quotient space does this correspond? To $x+iy$, obviously! (Observe also that $S^1$ itself is the quotient space of $[0,1]$ under the identification that glues together the points $0$ and $1$.)
Similarly, when we do the same thing for $Bbb C^n$ we do get a space homeomorphic to $Bbb T^2n$ which is a direct product of $2n$ copies of the circle.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
Let's consider just $Bbb C^1$ for now, and let's let the lattice be the one generated by $1$ and $i$, so that $a + bi = c+di$ exactly when both $a-c$ and $b-d$ are integers; all other lattices are quite similar.
Now it should be clear that the lattice divides the plane into squares, and each square is identified with the single principal square whose vertices are $0, 1, i, 1+i$. For example, under the quotient operation, $ 3þ+ (2+pi)i$ is the same point as $ þ+ (pi-3)i$. So we can forget the rest of the plane: the quotient operation turns it into a square.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the north and south edges of the square, because $ x$ and $x+i$ are identified for each real $x$. We can imagine that we have rolled the square into a tube shape and glued together the two edges. The tube's boundaries are two circles, the left-side one consisting of the points $iy$ for each $yin Bbb R$ and
the right-side one consisting of the points $ 1+iy$ for each such $y$.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the west and east edges of the square,
because $iy$ and $1+iy$ are identified for each real number $y$. We can imagine that we should take the tube and bend it around and glue together the two circles. This makes a torus.
(If we imagine doing this in a three-dimensional space, the geometry of the tube is stretched as we bend it, and distances are not preserved. But this is only an artifact of our three-dimensional brains, and you should ignore it. If done properly, in a space of four or more dimensions, we can join together the two circles with no stretching, and the resulting torus is perfectly flat.)
So for the case of $Bbb C^1$ we do indeed get something that behaves just like the torus $Bbb T^2 = S^1times S^1$. The correspondence is quite exact. Say that $xin S^1$ and $yin S^1$. Then we have $langle x,yrangle in S^1times S^1$. To which point of the $Bbb C^1$ quotient space does this correspond? To $x+iy$, obviously! (Observe also that $S^1$ itself is the quotient space of $[0,1]$ under the identification that glues together the points $0$ and $1$.)
Similarly, when we do the same thing for $Bbb C^n$ we do get a space homeomorphic to $Bbb T^2n$ which is a direct product of $2n$ copies of the circle.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
Let's consider just $Bbb C^1$ for now, and let's let the lattice be the one generated by $1$ and $i$, so that $a + bi = c+di$ exactly when both $a-c$ and $b-d$ are integers; all other lattices are quite similar.
Now it should be clear that the lattice divides the plane into squares, and each square is identified with the single principal square whose vertices are $0, 1, i, 1+i$. For example, under the quotient operation, $ 3þ+ (2+pi)i$ is the same point as $ þ+ (pi-3)i$. So we can forget the rest of the plane: the quotient operation turns it into a square.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the north and south edges of the square, because $ x$ and $x+i$ are identified for each real $x$. We can imagine that we have rolled the square into a tube shape and glued together the two edges. The tube's boundaries are two circles, the left-side one consisting of the points $iy$ for each $yin Bbb R$ and
the right-side one consisting of the points $ 1+iy$ for each such $y$.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the west and east edges of the square,
because $iy$ and $1+iy$ are identified for each real number $y$. We can imagine that we should take the tube and bend it around and glue together the two circles. This makes a torus.
(If we imagine doing this in a three-dimensional space, the geometry of the tube is stretched as we bend it, and distances are not preserved. But this is only an artifact of our three-dimensional brains, and you should ignore it. If done properly, in a space of four or more dimensions, we can join together the two circles with no stretching, and the resulting torus is perfectly flat.)
So for the case of $Bbb C^1$ we do indeed get something that behaves just like the torus $Bbb T^2 = S^1times S^1$. The correspondence is quite exact. Say that $xin S^1$ and $yin S^1$. Then we have $langle x,yrangle in S^1times S^1$. To which point of the $Bbb C^1$ quotient space does this correspond? To $x+iy$, obviously! (Observe also that $S^1$ itself is the quotient space of $[0,1]$ under the identification that glues together the points $0$ and $1$.)
Similarly, when we do the same thing for $Bbb C^n$ we do get a space homeomorphic to $Bbb T^2n$ which is a direct product of $2n$ copies of the circle.
Let's consider just $Bbb C^1$ for now, and let's let the lattice be the one generated by $1$ and $i$, so that $a + bi = c+di$ exactly when both $a-c$ and $b-d$ are integers; all other lattices are quite similar.
Now it should be clear that the lattice divides the plane into squares, and each square is identified with the single principal square whose vertices are $0, 1, i, 1+i$. For example, under the quotient operation, $ 3þ+ (2+pi)i$ is the same point as $ þ+ (pi-3)i$. So we can forget the rest of the plane: the quotient operation turns it into a square.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the north and south edges of the square, because $ x$ and $x+i$ are identified for each real $x$. We can imagine that we have rolled the square into a tube shape and glued together the two edges. The tube's boundaries are two circles, the left-side one consisting of the points $iy$ for each $yin Bbb R$ and
the right-side one consisting of the points $ 1+iy$ for each such $y$.
Additionally, the quotient operation identifies the west and east edges of the square,
because $iy$ and $1+iy$ are identified for each real number $y$. We can imagine that we should take the tube and bend it around and glue together the two circles. This makes a torus.
(If we imagine doing this in a three-dimensional space, the geometry of the tube is stretched as we bend it, and distances are not preserved. But this is only an artifact of our three-dimensional brains, and you should ignore it. If done properly, in a space of four or more dimensions, we can join together the two circles with no stretching, and the resulting torus is perfectly flat.)
So for the case of $Bbb C^1$ we do indeed get something that behaves just like the torus $Bbb T^2 = S^1times S^1$. The correspondence is quite exact. Say that $xin S^1$ and $yin S^1$. Then we have $langle x,yrangle in S^1times S^1$. To which point of the $Bbb C^1$ quotient space does this correspond? To $x+iy$, obviously! (Observe also that $S^1$ itself is the quotient space of $[0,1]$ under the identification that glues together the points $0$ and $1$.)
Similarly, when we do the same thing for $Bbb C^n$ we do get a space homeomorphic to $Bbb T^2n$ which is a direct product of $2n$ copies of the circle.
edited Aug 29 at 15:34
community wiki
3 revs
MJD
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2898182%2fwhy-is-complex-torus-torus%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Maybe not relevant but torus is used when "every coordinate loops over itself", like the meridian and parallel of a torus.
â Yves Daoust
Aug 29 at 10:06
3
In the case of $n=1$, it is homeomorphic to a torus
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
1
The same reason why we call $mathbb S^n$ the sphere, I guess.
â John Ma
Aug 29 at 10:07
According to wikipedia, it's because they are exactly, up to isomorphism, the complex manifolds whose underlying smooth structure is a torus.
â Saucy O'Path
Aug 29 at 10:07
Further to the point made by Yves, groups like SL($2$,$mathbbC$) and SL($n+1$,$mathbbC$) have a similar important subgroups isomorphic to, say, $mathbbC^*$ so the name torus is applied there, too.
â Kevin
Aug 29 at 10:10