AM-GM Proof in Spivak Calculus

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I am Anay. I was reading the second chapter "Numbers of Various Sorts" of Spivak Calculus 4th Edition when I came accross this, in Problem 22:




The result in Problem 1-7 has an important generalization: If $a_1, ..., a_n geq 0$, then the "arithmetic mean"
$$A_n = fraca_1+...+a_nn$$
and "geometric mean"
$$G_n = sqrt[n]a_1...a_n$$
satisy
(a) Suppose that $a_1 < A_n$. Then some $a_i$ satisfies $a_i > A_n$; for convenience, say $a_2 > A_n$. Let $bara_1 = A_n$ and let $bara_2 = a_1 + a_2 - bara_1$. Show that $$bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2.$$
Why does repeating this process enough times eventually prove that $G_n leq A_n$? (This is another place where it is a good exercise to provide a formal proof by induction, as well as an informal reason.) When does equality hold in the formula $G_n leq A_n$?




This is exactly what was written in the book. Now I showed $bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2$, that was easy. but I don't see how "repeating" this process enough times proves $G_n leq A_n$. What are we supposed to repeat exactly? What should we take as $bara_3, bara_4...$? I tried this in a variety of ways but I am not able to construct a proof. I tried searching for AM-GM proofs online to see if such a proof is listed and I couldn't find this one. So, I am asking this question here. How do I complete this AM-GM proof?



Thanks in advance.







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  • I think that $overline a_3$ will be $a_1 + a_2 + a_3 - overline a_2$ and that we have to show that: $overline a_1 overline a_2 overline a_3 ge a_1 a_2 a_3$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Oct 20 '17 at 13:18















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am Anay. I was reading the second chapter "Numbers of Various Sorts" of Spivak Calculus 4th Edition when I came accross this, in Problem 22:




The result in Problem 1-7 has an important generalization: If $a_1, ..., a_n geq 0$, then the "arithmetic mean"
$$A_n = fraca_1+...+a_nn$$
and "geometric mean"
$$G_n = sqrt[n]a_1...a_n$$
satisy
(a) Suppose that $a_1 < A_n$. Then some $a_i$ satisfies $a_i > A_n$; for convenience, say $a_2 > A_n$. Let $bara_1 = A_n$ and let $bara_2 = a_1 + a_2 - bara_1$. Show that $$bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2.$$
Why does repeating this process enough times eventually prove that $G_n leq A_n$? (This is another place where it is a good exercise to provide a formal proof by induction, as well as an informal reason.) When does equality hold in the formula $G_n leq A_n$?




This is exactly what was written in the book. Now I showed $bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2$, that was easy. but I don't see how "repeating" this process enough times proves $G_n leq A_n$. What are we supposed to repeat exactly? What should we take as $bara_3, bara_4...$? I tried this in a variety of ways but I am not able to construct a proof. I tried searching for AM-GM proofs online to see if such a proof is listed and I couldn't find this one. So, I am asking this question here. How do I complete this AM-GM proof?



Thanks in advance.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • I think that $overline a_3$ will be $a_1 + a_2 + a_3 - overline a_2$ and that we have to show that: $overline a_1 overline a_2 overline a_3 ge a_1 a_2 a_3$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Oct 20 '17 at 13:18













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am Anay. I was reading the second chapter "Numbers of Various Sorts" of Spivak Calculus 4th Edition when I came accross this, in Problem 22:




The result in Problem 1-7 has an important generalization: If $a_1, ..., a_n geq 0$, then the "arithmetic mean"
$$A_n = fraca_1+...+a_nn$$
and "geometric mean"
$$G_n = sqrt[n]a_1...a_n$$
satisy
(a) Suppose that $a_1 < A_n$. Then some $a_i$ satisfies $a_i > A_n$; for convenience, say $a_2 > A_n$. Let $bara_1 = A_n$ and let $bara_2 = a_1 + a_2 - bara_1$. Show that $$bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2.$$
Why does repeating this process enough times eventually prove that $G_n leq A_n$? (This is another place where it is a good exercise to provide a formal proof by induction, as well as an informal reason.) When does equality hold in the formula $G_n leq A_n$?




This is exactly what was written in the book. Now I showed $bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2$, that was easy. but I don't see how "repeating" this process enough times proves $G_n leq A_n$. What are we supposed to repeat exactly? What should we take as $bara_3, bara_4...$? I tried this in a variety of ways but I am not able to construct a proof. I tried searching for AM-GM proofs online to see if such a proof is listed and I couldn't find this one. So, I am asking this question here. How do I complete this AM-GM proof?



Thanks in advance.







share|cite|improve this question














I am Anay. I was reading the second chapter "Numbers of Various Sorts" of Spivak Calculus 4th Edition when I came accross this, in Problem 22:




The result in Problem 1-7 has an important generalization: If $a_1, ..., a_n geq 0$, then the "arithmetic mean"
$$A_n = fraca_1+...+a_nn$$
and "geometric mean"
$$G_n = sqrt[n]a_1...a_n$$
satisy
(a) Suppose that $a_1 < A_n$. Then some $a_i$ satisfies $a_i > A_n$; for convenience, say $a_2 > A_n$. Let $bara_1 = A_n$ and let $bara_2 = a_1 + a_2 - bara_1$. Show that $$bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2.$$
Why does repeating this process enough times eventually prove that $G_n leq A_n$? (This is another place where it is a good exercise to provide a formal proof by induction, as well as an informal reason.) When does equality hold in the formula $G_n leq A_n$?




This is exactly what was written in the book. Now I showed $bara_1bara_2 geq a_1a_2$, that was easy. but I don't see how "repeating" this process enough times proves $G_n leq A_n$. What are we supposed to repeat exactly? What should we take as $bara_3, bara_4...$? I tried this in a variety of ways but I am not able to construct a proof. I tried searching for AM-GM proofs online to see if such a proof is listed and I couldn't find this one. So, I am asking this question here. How do I complete this AM-GM proof?



Thanks in advance.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Oct 20 '17 at 13:32

























asked Oct 20 '17 at 12:42









Anay Karnik

1437




1437











  • I think that $overline a_3$ will be $a_1 + a_2 + a_3 - overline a_2$ and that we have to show that: $overline a_1 overline a_2 overline a_3 ge a_1 a_2 a_3$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Oct 20 '17 at 13:18

















  • I think that $overline a_3$ will be $a_1 + a_2 + a_3 - overline a_2$ and that we have to show that: $overline a_1 overline a_2 overline a_3 ge a_1 a_2 a_3$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Oct 20 '17 at 13:18
















I think that $overline a_3$ will be $a_1 + a_2 + a_3 - overline a_2$ and that we have to show that: $overline a_1 overline a_2 overline a_3 ge a_1 a_2 a_3$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 20 '17 at 13:18





I think that $overline a_3$ will be $a_1 + a_2 + a_3 - overline a_2$ and that we have to show that: $overline a_1 overline a_2 overline a_3 ge a_1 a_2 a_3$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 20 '17 at 13:18











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










What you have shown is the following:



If we replace $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ then the arithmetic mean of both $n$-tuples stays the same, while the geometric mean of the latter hasn't decreased relative to the former. Furthermore, in the $n$-tuple $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ there are strictly more numbers that are equal to $A_n$ than in the $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)$, because we supposed $a_1<A_n<a_2$. So as long as there is an $i$ such that $a_i<A_n$, we can use the same argument as above to strictly increase the number of numbers in the $n$-tuple equal to $A_n$, whitout decrasing the corresponding geometric mean. This is what is meant by repeating this procedure.



Can you see what all this leads to? If no, say so, and I will further elaborate.



Explanation (for @Honda):



The operation of replacing $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ doesn't affect the arithmetic mean. Furthermore, as $bara_1bara_2geq a_1a_2$, the geometric mean increases. As pointed out above, we can repeat this operation until all of the $a_i$ are equal to $A_n$. At this point, the geometric mean also equals $A_n$. As it only increased while repeating the procedure, the initial geometric mean $G_n$ must be smaller than the final one, that is $A_n$. We thus proved $G_nleq A_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
    – Anay Karnik
    Oct 21 '17 at 13:50










  • @AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
    – Redundant Aunt
    Oct 21 '17 at 20:55










  • @RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
    – Honda
    Aug 26 at 14:25










  • @Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
    – Redundant Aunt
    Aug 29 at 8:11










  • @RedundantAunt Thanks!
    – Honda
    Sep 5 at 3:24










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










What you have shown is the following:



If we replace $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ then the arithmetic mean of both $n$-tuples stays the same, while the geometric mean of the latter hasn't decreased relative to the former. Furthermore, in the $n$-tuple $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ there are strictly more numbers that are equal to $A_n$ than in the $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)$, because we supposed $a_1<A_n<a_2$. So as long as there is an $i$ such that $a_i<A_n$, we can use the same argument as above to strictly increase the number of numbers in the $n$-tuple equal to $A_n$, whitout decrasing the corresponding geometric mean. This is what is meant by repeating this procedure.



Can you see what all this leads to? If no, say so, and I will further elaborate.



Explanation (for @Honda):



The operation of replacing $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ doesn't affect the arithmetic mean. Furthermore, as $bara_1bara_2geq a_1a_2$, the geometric mean increases. As pointed out above, we can repeat this operation until all of the $a_i$ are equal to $A_n$. At this point, the geometric mean also equals $A_n$. As it only increased while repeating the procedure, the initial geometric mean $G_n$ must be smaller than the final one, that is $A_n$. We thus proved $G_nleq A_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
    – Anay Karnik
    Oct 21 '17 at 13:50










  • @AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
    – Redundant Aunt
    Oct 21 '17 at 20:55










  • @RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
    – Honda
    Aug 26 at 14:25










  • @Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
    – Redundant Aunt
    Aug 29 at 8:11










  • @RedundantAunt Thanks!
    – Honda
    Sep 5 at 3:24














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










What you have shown is the following:



If we replace $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ then the arithmetic mean of both $n$-tuples stays the same, while the geometric mean of the latter hasn't decreased relative to the former. Furthermore, in the $n$-tuple $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ there are strictly more numbers that are equal to $A_n$ than in the $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)$, because we supposed $a_1<A_n<a_2$. So as long as there is an $i$ such that $a_i<A_n$, we can use the same argument as above to strictly increase the number of numbers in the $n$-tuple equal to $A_n$, whitout decrasing the corresponding geometric mean. This is what is meant by repeating this procedure.



Can you see what all this leads to? If no, say so, and I will further elaborate.



Explanation (for @Honda):



The operation of replacing $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ doesn't affect the arithmetic mean. Furthermore, as $bara_1bara_2geq a_1a_2$, the geometric mean increases. As pointed out above, we can repeat this operation until all of the $a_i$ are equal to $A_n$. At this point, the geometric mean also equals $A_n$. As it only increased while repeating the procedure, the initial geometric mean $G_n$ must be smaller than the final one, that is $A_n$. We thus proved $G_nleq A_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
    – Anay Karnik
    Oct 21 '17 at 13:50










  • @AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
    – Redundant Aunt
    Oct 21 '17 at 20:55










  • @RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
    – Honda
    Aug 26 at 14:25










  • @Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
    – Redundant Aunt
    Aug 29 at 8:11










  • @RedundantAunt Thanks!
    – Honda
    Sep 5 at 3:24












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






What you have shown is the following:



If we replace $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ then the arithmetic mean of both $n$-tuples stays the same, while the geometric mean of the latter hasn't decreased relative to the former. Furthermore, in the $n$-tuple $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ there are strictly more numbers that are equal to $A_n$ than in the $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)$, because we supposed $a_1<A_n<a_2$. So as long as there is an $i$ such that $a_i<A_n$, we can use the same argument as above to strictly increase the number of numbers in the $n$-tuple equal to $A_n$, whitout decrasing the corresponding geometric mean. This is what is meant by repeating this procedure.



Can you see what all this leads to? If no, say so, and I will further elaborate.



Explanation (for @Honda):



The operation of replacing $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ doesn't affect the arithmetic mean. Furthermore, as $bara_1bara_2geq a_1a_2$, the geometric mean increases. As pointed out above, we can repeat this operation until all of the $a_i$ are equal to $A_n$. At this point, the geometric mean also equals $A_n$. As it only increased while repeating the procedure, the initial geometric mean $G_n$ must be smaller than the final one, that is $A_n$. We thus proved $G_nleq A_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer














What you have shown is the following:



If we replace $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ then the arithmetic mean of both $n$-tuples stays the same, while the geometric mean of the latter hasn't decreased relative to the former. Furthermore, in the $n$-tuple $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ there are strictly more numbers that are equal to $A_n$ than in the $n$-tuple $(a_1,...,a_n)$, because we supposed $a_1<A_n<a_2$. So as long as there is an $i$ such that $a_i<A_n$, we can use the same argument as above to strictly increase the number of numbers in the $n$-tuple equal to $A_n$, whitout decrasing the corresponding geometric mean. This is what is meant by repeating this procedure.



Can you see what all this leads to? If no, say so, and I will further elaborate.



Explanation (for @Honda):



The operation of replacing $(a_1,...,a_n)$ by $(bara_1,bara_2,a_3,...,a_n)$ doesn't affect the arithmetic mean. Furthermore, as $bara_1bara_2geq a_1a_2$, the geometric mean increases. As pointed out above, we can repeat this operation until all of the $a_i$ are equal to $A_n$. At this point, the geometric mean also equals $A_n$. As it only increased while repeating the procedure, the initial geometric mean $G_n$ must be smaller than the final one, that is $A_n$. We thus proved $G_nleq A_n$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 29 at 8:10

























answered Oct 20 '17 at 17:32









Redundant Aunt

7,14021141




7,14021141











  • Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
    – Anay Karnik
    Oct 21 '17 at 13:50










  • @AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
    – Redundant Aunt
    Oct 21 '17 at 20:55










  • @RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
    – Honda
    Aug 26 at 14:25










  • @Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
    – Redundant Aunt
    Aug 29 at 8:11










  • @RedundantAunt Thanks!
    – Honda
    Sep 5 at 3:24
















  • Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
    – Anay Karnik
    Oct 21 '17 at 13:50










  • @AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
    – Redundant Aunt
    Oct 21 '17 at 20:55










  • @RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
    – Honda
    Aug 26 at 14:25










  • @Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
    – Redundant Aunt
    Aug 29 at 8:11










  • @RedundantAunt Thanks!
    – Honda
    Sep 5 at 3:24















Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
– Anay Karnik
Oct 21 '17 at 13:50




Thanks, I understood now. I got it.
– Anay Karnik
Oct 21 '17 at 13:50












@AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
– Redundant Aunt
Oct 21 '17 at 20:55




@AnayKarnik You're welcome :)
– Redundant Aunt
Oct 21 '17 at 20:55












@RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
– Honda
Aug 26 at 14:25




@RedundantAunt I can't see where this leads to, may you please elaborate
– Honda
Aug 26 at 14:25












@Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
– Redundant Aunt
Aug 29 at 8:11




@Honda I added an explanation; let me know if something is still unclear.
– Redundant Aunt
Aug 29 at 8:11












@RedundantAunt Thanks!
– Honda
Sep 5 at 3:24




@RedundantAunt Thanks!
– Honda
Sep 5 at 3:24

















 

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