A question about weakly continuous functions from $mathbbR_+ rightarrow H^1 (mathbbR^3)$

Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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I wonder if the following is true
$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$
For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$
I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.
For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,
$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$
Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$
Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?
real-analysis functional-analysis convergence sobolev-spaces
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I wonder if the following is true
$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$
For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$
I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.
For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,
$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$
Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$
Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?
real-analysis functional-analysis convergence sobolev-spaces
Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:03
I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10
This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13
Can you provide a reference for the claim?
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:13
Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I wonder if the following is true
$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$
For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$
I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.
For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,
$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$
Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$
Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?
real-analysis functional-analysis convergence sobolev-spaces
I wonder if the following is true
$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$
For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$
I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.
For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,
$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$
Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have
$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$
Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?
real-analysis functional-analysis convergence sobolev-spaces
edited Aug 8 at 16:52
asked Aug 8 at 16:21
o0BlueBeast0o
3061211
3061211
Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:03
I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10
This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13
Can you provide a reference for the claim?
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:13
Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16
 |Â
show 1 more comment
Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:03
I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10
This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13
Can you provide a reference for the claim?
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:13
Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16
Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:03
Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:03
I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10
I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10
This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13
This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13
Can you provide a reference for the claim?
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:13
Can you provide a reference for the claim?
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:13
Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16
Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
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accepted
Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.
Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.
Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.
Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.
Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.
Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.
Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.
answered Aug 8 at 17:28
daw
22k1542
22k1542
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
add a comment |Â
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38
add a comment |Â
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Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:03
I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10
This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13
Can you provide a reference for the claim?
â daw
Aug 8 at 17:13
Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
â o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16