A question about weakly continuous functions from $mathbbR_+ rightarrow H^1 (mathbbR^3)$

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I wonder if the following is true



$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$



For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$



I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.



For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,



$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$



Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$



Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?







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  • Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:03










  • I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:10











  • This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Can you provide a reference for the claim?
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:16














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












I wonder if the following is true



$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$



For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$



I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.



For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,



$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$



Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$



Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:03










  • I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:10











  • This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Can you provide a reference for the claim?
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:16












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











I wonder if the following is true



$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$



For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$



I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.



For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,



$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$



Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$



Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?







share|cite|improve this question














I wonder if the following is true



$$ L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 (mathbbR^3)) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3)). hspace2cm (1) $$



For me $psi in C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1 (mathbbR^3))$ means $forall L in H^-1 (mathbbR^3)$,



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| xrightarrown rightarrow infty 0 ~~~~ mathrmwhen ~~~~ t_n xrightarrown rightarrow infty t. $$



I can think I can conclude (1) via the following little argument.



For $L in H^-1$, let $v_L$ denote the $H^1$-function given by the Riesz Representation theorem for $H^1$, i.e.,



$$ L (u) = langle u , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 = langle u , v_L rangle_H^1. $$



Similarly, for $v in H^1$ let $L_v$ denote the functional determined by $v$ via the Riesz Representation theorem. Then, since $psi in C (mathbbR_+ ; H^-1 )$, we have



$$ left| langle psi (t_n) - psi (t) , L rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| = left| langle v_L , L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) rangle_H^1 , H^-1 right| leq | L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 | v_L |_H^1 rightarrow 0. $$



Is my reasoning correct, or am I misunderstanding the spaces and convergences involved?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 8 at 16:52

























asked Aug 8 at 16:21









o0BlueBeast0o

3061211




3061211











  • Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:03










  • I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:10











  • This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Can you provide a reference for the claim?
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:16
















  • Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:03










  • I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:10











  • This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Can you provide a reference for the claim?
    – daw
    Aug 8 at 17:13










  • Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:16















Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
– daw
Aug 8 at 17:03




Why should $|L_psi(t_n)-L_psi(t)|_H^-1$ converge to zero? This is equivalent to $|psi(t_n)-psi(t)|_H^1to0$, which is stronger than what you want to prove.
– daw
Aug 8 at 17:03












I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10





I think the claim that $L_mathrmloc^infty (mathbbR_+ ; H^1) cap C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1) subset C_mathrmw (mathbbR_+ ; H^1)$ is true. I found this assertion (without proof) in a paper published in CMP. My argument above maybe wrong, but I believe the claim is correct. Also, what does it mean for $psi in C(mathbbR_+ ; H^-1)$? I thought that if $psi (t) in H^1$, then this meant $| L_psi (t_n) - L_psi (t) |_H^-1 rightarrow 0$?
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:10













This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13




This is exactly why I am asking the question though. I think I am getting confused with the convergence in the spaces involved. If you could clarify things for me, I would really appreciate it.
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:13












Can you provide a reference for the claim?
– daw
Aug 8 at 17:13




Can you provide a reference for the claim?
– daw
Aug 8 at 17:13












Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16




Yes, "Global finite energy solutions to the Maxwell-Schrodinger equations": link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02099444. The claim is in the paragraph just below equation (4.14).
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:16










1 Answer
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Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.



Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.






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  • Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:38










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.



Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:38














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.



Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:38












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.



Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.






share|cite|improve this answer












Let $u$ be given as $uin L^infty(I, X)$ and $uin C(bar I,Y)$ for an intervall $I$, reflexive Banach space $X$ and normed space $Y$ with continuous embedding $Xhookrightarrow Y$. Then $uin C_w(bar I,X)$.



Take $t_nto t$. Then $(u(t_n))$ is bounded in $X$, hence contains a weakly converging subsequence $u(t_n_k)$ converging weakly to some $tilde u$ in $X$. Due to the continuity in $Y$, we have $tilde u= u(t)$. This means the weak subsequential limit does not depend on the subsequence. Moreover, each subsequence of $(u(t_n))$ contains another subsequence converging to $u(t)$ weakly in $X$. This implies $u(t_n)rightharpoonup u(t)$ in $X$, which is the weak continuity.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 8 at 17:28









daw

22k1542




22k1542











  • Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:38
















  • Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
    – o0BlueBeast0o
    Aug 8 at 17:38















Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38




Thank you! Things are clear to me now.
– o0BlueBeast0o
Aug 8 at 17:38












 

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