Connecting smooth functions in a smooth way

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Let $a<b<c<d$ be real values, and let $f in C^infty([a,b])$ and $g in C^infty([c,d])$. Is there a way to "connect" these functions in a smooth way? That is, is there a function $h in C^infty([a,d])$ such that $h=f$ on $[a,b]$ and $h=g$ on $[c,d]$?



If this is true, how is the proven? Is the proof non-constructive, or is there an explicit way to do it?







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  • The usual solution makes use of mollifiers.
    – Siminore
    May 22 at 18:51






  • 1




    I don't know if it helps but the answer is yes. And the proof I know uses the notion of convolution to make the function smooth. (It's easy to construct a continuous $h$, you need convolution to smooth it out).
    – Yanko
    May 22 at 19:14







  • 1




    Yes, there exist very many ways to do so. So many ways it becomes difficult to answer without given more information of what kind of functions or demands we make on the solution.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 10 at 17:38










  • @mathreadler The OP just wants a smooth extension to $[a,d].$ Can you share one way to do this?
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 21:11










  • @mathreadler Preferably the extension $h$ would stay between $f(b)$ and $f(c)$
    – Sambo
    Aug 10 at 22:01














up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












Let $a<b<c<d$ be real values, and let $f in C^infty([a,b])$ and $g in C^infty([c,d])$. Is there a way to "connect" these functions in a smooth way? That is, is there a function $h in C^infty([a,d])$ such that $h=f$ on $[a,b]$ and $h=g$ on $[c,d]$?



If this is true, how is the proven? Is the proof non-constructive, or is there an explicit way to do it?







share|cite|improve this question






















  • The usual solution makes use of mollifiers.
    – Siminore
    May 22 at 18:51






  • 1




    I don't know if it helps but the answer is yes. And the proof I know uses the notion of convolution to make the function smooth. (It's easy to construct a continuous $h$, you need convolution to smooth it out).
    – Yanko
    May 22 at 19:14







  • 1




    Yes, there exist very many ways to do so. So many ways it becomes difficult to answer without given more information of what kind of functions or demands we make on the solution.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 10 at 17:38










  • @mathreadler The OP just wants a smooth extension to $[a,d].$ Can you share one way to do this?
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 21:11










  • @mathreadler Preferably the extension $h$ would stay between $f(b)$ and $f(c)$
    – Sambo
    Aug 10 at 22:01












up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $a<b<c<d$ be real values, and let $f in C^infty([a,b])$ and $g in C^infty([c,d])$. Is there a way to "connect" these functions in a smooth way? That is, is there a function $h in C^infty([a,d])$ such that $h=f$ on $[a,b]$ and $h=g$ on $[c,d]$?



If this is true, how is the proven? Is the proof non-constructive, or is there an explicit way to do it?







share|cite|improve this question














Let $a<b<c<d$ be real values, and let $f in C^infty([a,b])$ and $g in C^infty([c,d])$. Is there a way to "connect" these functions in a smooth way? That is, is there a function $h in C^infty([a,d])$ such that $h=f$ on $[a,b]$ and $h=g$ on $[c,d]$?



If this is true, how is the proven? Is the proof non-constructive, or is there an explicit way to do it?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 8 at 19:27

























asked May 22 at 18:48









Sambo

1,3011427




1,3011427











  • The usual solution makes use of mollifiers.
    – Siminore
    May 22 at 18:51






  • 1




    I don't know if it helps but the answer is yes. And the proof I know uses the notion of convolution to make the function smooth. (It's easy to construct a continuous $h$, you need convolution to smooth it out).
    – Yanko
    May 22 at 19:14







  • 1




    Yes, there exist very many ways to do so. So many ways it becomes difficult to answer without given more information of what kind of functions or demands we make on the solution.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 10 at 17:38










  • @mathreadler The OP just wants a smooth extension to $[a,d].$ Can you share one way to do this?
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 21:11










  • @mathreadler Preferably the extension $h$ would stay between $f(b)$ and $f(c)$
    – Sambo
    Aug 10 at 22:01
















  • The usual solution makes use of mollifiers.
    – Siminore
    May 22 at 18:51






  • 1




    I don't know if it helps but the answer is yes. And the proof I know uses the notion of convolution to make the function smooth. (It's easy to construct a continuous $h$, you need convolution to smooth it out).
    – Yanko
    May 22 at 19:14







  • 1




    Yes, there exist very many ways to do so. So many ways it becomes difficult to answer without given more information of what kind of functions or demands we make on the solution.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 10 at 17:38










  • @mathreadler The OP just wants a smooth extension to $[a,d].$ Can you share one way to do this?
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 21:11










  • @mathreadler Preferably the extension $h$ would stay between $f(b)$ and $f(c)$
    – Sambo
    Aug 10 at 22:01















The usual solution makes use of mollifiers.
– Siminore
May 22 at 18:51




The usual solution makes use of mollifiers.
– Siminore
May 22 at 18:51




1




1




I don't know if it helps but the answer is yes. And the proof I know uses the notion of convolution to make the function smooth. (It's easy to construct a continuous $h$, you need convolution to smooth it out).
– Yanko
May 22 at 19:14





I don't know if it helps but the answer is yes. And the proof I know uses the notion of convolution to make the function smooth. (It's easy to construct a continuous $h$, you need convolution to smooth it out).
– Yanko
May 22 at 19:14





1




1




Yes, there exist very many ways to do so. So many ways it becomes difficult to answer without given more information of what kind of functions or demands we make on the solution.
– mathreadler
Aug 10 at 17:38




Yes, there exist very many ways to do so. So many ways it becomes difficult to answer without given more information of what kind of functions or demands we make on the solution.
– mathreadler
Aug 10 at 17:38












@mathreadler The OP just wants a smooth extension to $[a,d].$ Can you share one way to do this?
– zhw.
Aug 10 at 21:11




@mathreadler The OP just wants a smooth extension to $[a,d].$ Can you share one way to do this?
– zhw.
Aug 10 at 21:11












@mathreadler Preferably the extension $h$ would stay between $f(b)$ and $f(c)$
– Sambo
Aug 10 at 22:01




@mathreadler Preferably the extension $h$ would stay between $f(b)$ and $f(c)$
– Sambo
Aug 10 at 22:01










2 Answers
2






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oldest

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up vote
5
down vote



accepted
+150










There is a well known result of Borel that will be useful here.



Borel's theorem on power series: Let $x_0in mathbb R.$ Given $a_0,a_1, dots in mathbb R,$ there exists $fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$tag 1 D^nf(x_0) = a_n, n=0,1,dots.$$



This is stated here, with a sketch of the proof, at the very end: http://math.caltech.edu/~nets/lecture12.pdf. The statement there is not exactly $(1),$ but the two are clearly equivalent. (I'd refer you to the wikipedia page on this, but the author there gets all caught up in stating a very general version, which we don't need.)



Corollary: If $fin C^infty[a,b],$ then there exists $Fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that $F= f$ on $[a,b].$



Proof: By Borel, there exists $f_1 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_1(a) = D^nf(a), n=0,1,dots.$$



There also exists $f_2 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_2(b) = D^nf(b), n=0,1,dots.$$



Now define



$$F(x) = begincases f_1(x) ,qquad x le a \ f(x) , qquad xin [a,b] \ f_2(x) ,qquad x ge b \
endcases$$



This $F$ does the job: It equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ it's clearly in $C^infty(mathbb Rsetminus a,b),$ and Borel gives us exactly the match-up at $a,b$ we need to see $Fin C^infty(mathbb R).$



So now to your set up with $fin C^infty([a,b]),gin C^infty([c,d]): $ We choose $F$ relative to $f,$ and $G$ relative to $g,$ as in the corollary. We also choose "blending" functions $alpha, beta in C^infty(mathbb R)$ that do the following:



$$alpha (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin (-infty,b] \ 0, qquad xin [c,infty)\
endcases$$



$$beta (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin [c,infty) \ 0, qquad xin (-infty,b]\
endcases$$



Then $h=alpha F + beta G$ solves your problem with room to spare: It belongs to $C^infty(mathbb R),$ it equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ and equals $g$ on $[c,d].$






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Could you give an example of the blending functions?
    – Sambo
    Aug 11 at 19:54






  • 1




    @Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 1:59











  • Wonderful, thank you!
    – Sambo
    Aug 12 at 4:17










  • Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 15:22

















up vote
0
down vote













If you extent $f(x)$ $forall epsilon>0$ from $[a,b]$ to $[a,b+epsilon]$ (which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined), so that you are free to do whatever you want on $(b,b+epsilon]$ and likewise $g(x)$ from $[c,d]$ to $[c-epsilon,d]$, then you can blend it by
$$
h(x) = leftThetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] + varphi_epsilonleft(x-bright)right f(x) + leftThetaleft[ c leq x leq d right] + varphi_epsilonleft(c-xright)right g(x)
$$
where
$$
Thetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] = begincases 1 qquad a leq x leq b \ 0 qquad rm else endcases
$$
and
$$
varphi_epsilonleft(xright) = begincases 0 qquad x leq 0 \ tanh^2left(frac1xcoshleft(frac1x-epsilonright)right) qquad 0 < x < epsilon \ 0 qquad epsilon leq xendcases , .
$$






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  • 2




    "which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 17:09










  • If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
    – Diger
    Aug 10 at 23:15










  • The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 11 at 4:25










  • You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:39











  • If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:52











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
5
down vote



accepted
+150










There is a well known result of Borel that will be useful here.



Borel's theorem on power series: Let $x_0in mathbb R.$ Given $a_0,a_1, dots in mathbb R,$ there exists $fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$tag 1 D^nf(x_0) = a_n, n=0,1,dots.$$



This is stated here, with a sketch of the proof, at the very end: http://math.caltech.edu/~nets/lecture12.pdf. The statement there is not exactly $(1),$ but the two are clearly equivalent. (I'd refer you to the wikipedia page on this, but the author there gets all caught up in stating a very general version, which we don't need.)



Corollary: If $fin C^infty[a,b],$ then there exists $Fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that $F= f$ on $[a,b].$



Proof: By Borel, there exists $f_1 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_1(a) = D^nf(a), n=0,1,dots.$$



There also exists $f_2 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_2(b) = D^nf(b), n=0,1,dots.$$



Now define



$$F(x) = begincases f_1(x) ,qquad x le a \ f(x) , qquad xin [a,b] \ f_2(x) ,qquad x ge b \
endcases$$



This $F$ does the job: It equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ it's clearly in $C^infty(mathbb Rsetminus a,b),$ and Borel gives us exactly the match-up at $a,b$ we need to see $Fin C^infty(mathbb R).$



So now to your set up with $fin C^infty([a,b]),gin C^infty([c,d]): $ We choose $F$ relative to $f,$ and $G$ relative to $g,$ as in the corollary. We also choose "blending" functions $alpha, beta in C^infty(mathbb R)$ that do the following:



$$alpha (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin (-infty,b] \ 0, qquad xin [c,infty)\
endcases$$



$$beta (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin [c,infty) \ 0, qquad xin (-infty,b]\
endcases$$



Then $h=alpha F + beta G$ solves your problem with room to spare: It belongs to $C^infty(mathbb R),$ it equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ and equals $g$ on $[c,d].$






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Could you give an example of the blending functions?
    – Sambo
    Aug 11 at 19:54






  • 1




    @Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 1:59











  • Wonderful, thank you!
    – Sambo
    Aug 12 at 4:17










  • Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 15:22














up vote
5
down vote



accepted
+150










There is a well known result of Borel that will be useful here.



Borel's theorem on power series: Let $x_0in mathbb R.$ Given $a_0,a_1, dots in mathbb R,$ there exists $fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$tag 1 D^nf(x_0) = a_n, n=0,1,dots.$$



This is stated here, with a sketch of the proof, at the very end: http://math.caltech.edu/~nets/lecture12.pdf. The statement there is not exactly $(1),$ but the two are clearly equivalent. (I'd refer you to the wikipedia page on this, but the author there gets all caught up in stating a very general version, which we don't need.)



Corollary: If $fin C^infty[a,b],$ then there exists $Fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that $F= f$ on $[a,b].$



Proof: By Borel, there exists $f_1 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_1(a) = D^nf(a), n=0,1,dots.$$



There also exists $f_2 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_2(b) = D^nf(b), n=0,1,dots.$$



Now define



$$F(x) = begincases f_1(x) ,qquad x le a \ f(x) , qquad xin [a,b] \ f_2(x) ,qquad x ge b \
endcases$$



This $F$ does the job: It equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ it's clearly in $C^infty(mathbb Rsetminus a,b),$ and Borel gives us exactly the match-up at $a,b$ we need to see $Fin C^infty(mathbb R).$



So now to your set up with $fin C^infty([a,b]),gin C^infty([c,d]): $ We choose $F$ relative to $f,$ and $G$ relative to $g,$ as in the corollary. We also choose "blending" functions $alpha, beta in C^infty(mathbb R)$ that do the following:



$$alpha (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin (-infty,b] \ 0, qquad xin [c,infty)\
endcases$$



$$beta (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin [c,infty) \ 0, qquad xin (-infty,b]\
endcases$$



Then $h=alpha F + beta G$ solves your problem with room to spare: It belongs to $C^infty(mathbb R),$ it equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ and equals $g$ on $[c,d].$






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Could you give an example of the blending functions?
    – Sambo
    Aug 11 at 19:54






  • 1




    @Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 1:59











  • Wonderful, thank you!
    – Sambo
    Aug 12 at 4:17










  • Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 15:22












up vote
5
down vote



accepted
+150







up vote
5
down vote



accepted
+150




+150




There is a well known result of Borel that will be useful here.



Borel's theorem on power series: Let $x_0in mathbb R.$ Given $a_0,a_1, dots in mathbb R,$ there exists $fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$tag 1 D^nf(x_0) = a_n, n=0,1,dots.$$



This is stated here, with a sketch of the proof, at the very end: http://math.caltech.edu/~nets/lecture12.pdf. The statement there is not exactly $(1),$ but the two are clearly equivalent. (I'd refer you to the wikipedia page on this, but the author there gets all caught up in stating a very general version, which we don't need.)



Corollary: If $fin C^infty[a,b],$ then there exists $Fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that $F= f$ on $[a,b].$



Proof: By Borel, there exists $f_1 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_1(a) = D^nf(a), n=0,1,dots.$$



There also exists $f_2 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_2(b) = D^nf(b), n=0,1,dots.$$



Now define



$$F(x) = begincases f_1(x) ,qquad x le a \ f(x) , qquad xin [a,b] \ f_2(x) ,qquad x ge b \
endcases$$



This $F$ does the job: It equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ it's clearly in $C^infty(mathbb Rsetminus a,b),$ and Borel gives us exactly the match-up at $a,b$ we need to see $Fin C^infty(mathbb R).$



So now to your set up with $fin C^infty([a,b]),gin C^infty([c,d]): $ We choose $F$ relative to $f,$ and $G$ relative to $g,$ as in the corollary. We also choose "blending" functions $alpha, beta in C^infty(mathbb R)$ that do the following:



$$alpha (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin (-infty,b] \ 0, qquad xin [c,infty)\
endcases$$



$$beta (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin [c,infty) \ 0, qquad xin (-infty,b]\
endcases$$



Then $h=alpha F + beta G$ solves your problem with room to spare: It belongs to $C^infty(mathbb R),$ it equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ and equals $g$ on $[c,d].$






share|cite|improve this answer














There is a well known result of Borel that will be useful here.



Borel's theorem on power series: Let $x_0in mathbb R.$ Given $a_0,a_1, dots in mathbb R,$ there exists $fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$tag 1 D^nf(x_0) = a_n, n=0,1,dots.$$



This is stated here, with a sketch of the proof, at the very end: http://math.caltech.edu/~nets/lecture12.pdf. The statement there is not exactly $(1),$ but the two are clearly equivalent. (I'd refer you to the wikipedia page on this, but the author there gets all caught up in stating a very general version, which we don't need.)



Corollary: If $fin C^infty[a,b],$ then there exists $Fin C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that $F= f$ on $[a,b].$



Proof: By Borel, there exists $f_1 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_1(a) = D^nf(a), n=0,1,dots.$$



There also exists $f_2 in C^infty(mathbb R)$ such that



$$D^nf_2(b) = D^nf(b), n=0,1,dots.$$



Now define



$$F(x) = begincases f_1(x) ,qquad x le a \ f(x) , qquad xin [a,b] \ f_2(x) ,qquad x ge b \
endcases$$



This $F$ does the job: It equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ it's clearly in $C^infty(mathbb Rsetminus a,b),$ and Borel gives us exactly the match-up at $a,b$ we need to see $Fin C^infty(mathbb R).$



So now to your set up with $fin C^infty([a,b]),gin C^infty([c,d]): $ We choose $F$ relative to $f,$ and $G$ relative to $g,$ as in the corollary. We also choose "blending" functions $alpha, beta in C^infty(mathbb R)$ that do the following:



$$alpha (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin (-infty,b] \ 0, qquad xin [c,infty)\
endcases$$



$$beta (x) = begincases 1, qquad xin [c,infty) \ 0, qquad xin (-infty,b]\
endcases$$



Then $h=alpha F + beta G$ solves your problem with room to spare: It belongs to $C^infty(mathbb R),$ it equals $f$ on $[a,b],$ and equals $g$ on $[c,d].$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 11 at 4:28

























answered Aug 10 at 17:01









zhw.

66.1k42870




66.1k42870











  • Could you give an example of the blending functions?
    – Sambo
    Aug 11 at 19:54






  • 1




    @Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 1:59











  • Wonderful, thank you!
    – Sambo
    Aug 12 at 4:17










  • Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 15:22
















  • Could you give an example of the blending functions?
    – Sambo
    Aug 11 at 19:54






  • 1




    @Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 1:59











  • Wonderful, thank you!
    – Sambo
    Aug 12 at 4:17










  • Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
    – zhw.
    Aug 12 at 15:22















Could you give an example of the blending functions?
– Sambo
Aug 11 at 19:54




Could you give an example of the blending functions?
– Sambo
Aug 11 at 19:54




1




1




@Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
– zhw.
Aug 12 at 1:59





@Sambo Suppose we're dealing with $[0,1].$ Then there is a bump function $phi$ on $[0,1].$ I.e., a smooth function $phi$ on $mathbb R$ such that $phi =0$ on $(-infty,0] cup [1,infty)$ with $phi > 0$ in between. We can choose this $phi$ such that $int_0^1phi =1.$ Then set $beta (x) = int_0^xphi.$ Then $beta in C^infty$ and $beta = 0$ on $(-infty,0],$ $beta = 1$ on $[1,infty),$ and $0< beta <1$ in between. $alpha (x) = 1- beta (x)$ is like $beta $ backwards. We can easily move $[0,1]$ to any other $[a,b].$
– zhw.
Aug 12 at 1:59













Wonderful, thank you!
– Sambo
Aug 12 at 4:17




Wonderful, thank you!
– Sambo
Aug 12 at 4:17












Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
– zhw.
Aug 12 at 15:22




Sure, and thank you. Ask if you have further questions.
– zhw.
Aug 12 at 15:22










up vote
0
down vote













If you extent $f(x)$ $forall epsilon>0$ from $[a,b]$ to $[a,b+epsilon]$ (which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined), so that you are free to do whatever you want on $(b,b+epsilon]$ and likewise $g(x)$ from $[c,d]$ to $[c-epsilon,d]$, then you can blend it by
$$
h(x) = leftThetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] + varphi_epsilonleft(x-bright)right f(x) + leftThetaleft[ c leq x leq d right] + varphi_epsilonleft(c-xright)right g(x)
$$
where
$$
Thetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] = begincases 1 qquad a leq x leq b \ 0 qquad rm else endcases
$$
and
$$
varphi_epsilonleft(xright) = begincases 0 qquad x leq 0 \ tanh^2left(frac1xcoshleft(frac1x-epsilonright)right) qquad 0 < x < epsilon \ 0 qquad epsilon leq xendcases , .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    "which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 17:09










  • If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
    – Diger
    Aug 10 at 23:15










  • The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 11 at 4:25










  • You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:39











  • If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:52















up vote
0
down vote













If you extent $f(x)$ $forall epsilon>0$ from $[a,b]$ to $[a,b+epsilon]$ (which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined), so that you are free to do whatever you want on $(b,b+epsilon]$ and likewise $g(x)$ from $[c,d]$ to $[c-epsilon,d]$, then you can blend it by
$$
h(x) = leftThetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] + varphi_epsilonleft(x-bright)right f(x) + leftThetaleft[ c leq x leq d right] + varphi_epsilonleft(c-xright)right g(x)
$$
where
$$
Thetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] = begincases 1 qquad a leq x leq b \ 0 qquad rm else endcases
$$
and
$$
varphi_epsilonleft(xright) = begincases 0 qquad x leq 0 \ tanh^2left(frac1xcoshleft(frac1x-epsilonright)right) qquad 0 < x < epsilon \ 0 qquad epsilon leq xendcases , .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    "which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 17:09










  • If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
    – Diger
    Aug 10 at 23:15










  • The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 11 at 4:25










  • You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:39











  • If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:52













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









If you extent $f(x)$ $forall epsilon>0$ from $[a,b]$ to $[a,b+epsilon]$ (which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined), so that you are free to do whatever you want on $(b,b+epsilon]$ and likewise $g(x)$ from $[c,d]$ to $[c-epsilon,d]$, then you can blend it by
$$
h(x) = leftThetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] + varphi_epsilonleft(x-bright)right f(x) + leftThetaleft[ c leq x leq d right] + varphi_epsilonleft(c-xright)right g(x)
$$
where
$$
Thetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] = begincases 1 qquad a leq x leq b \ 0 qquad rm else endcases
$$
and
$$
varphi_epsilonleft(xright) = begincases 0 qquad x leq 0 \ tanh^2left(frac1xcoshleft(frac1x-epsilonright)right) qquad 0 < x < epsilon \ 0 qquad epsilon leq xendcases , .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer














If you extent $f(x)$ $forall epsilon>0$ from $[a,b]$ to $[a,b+epsilon]$ (which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined), so that you are free to do whatever you want on $(b,b+epsilon]$ and likewise $g(x)$ from $[c,d]$ to $[c-epsilon,d]$, then you can blend it by
$$
h(x) = leftThetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] + varphi_epsilonleft(x-bright)right f(x) + leftThetaleft[ c leq x leq d right] + varphi_epsilonleft(c-xright)right g(x)
$$
where
$$
Thetaleft[ a leq x leq b right] = begincases 1 qquad a leq x leq b \ 0 qquad rm else endcases
$$
and
$$
varphi_epsilonleft(xright) = begincases 0 qquad x leq 0 \ tanh^2left(frac1xcoshleft(frac1x-epsilonright)right) qquad 0 < x < epsilon \ 0 qquad epsilon leq xendcases , .
$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 8 at 22:59

























answered Aug 8 at 22:35









Diger

63829




63829







  • 2




    "which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 17:09










  • If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
    – Diger
    Aug 10 at 23:15










  • The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 11 at 4:25










  • You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:39











  • If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:52













  • 2




    "which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 10 at 17:09










  • If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
    – Diger
    Aug 10 at 23:15










  • The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
    – zhw.
    Aug 11 at 4:25










  • You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:39











  • If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
    – Diger
    Aug 11 at 4:52








2




2




"which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
– zhw.
Aug 10 at 17:09




"which I guess can be done in the sense of the series-expression as all derivatives are defined" But the Taylor series of $f$ need need not converge in any interval of positive length centered at $b.$
– zhw.
Aug 10 at 17:09












If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
– Diger
Aug 10 at 23:15




If that is the case as in $e^-1/x^2$ then however also the function vanishes in an entire neighbourhood. Or can you give a more concrete example?
– Diger
Aug 10 at 23:15












The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
– zhw.
Aug 11 at 4:25




The Taylor series in that case converges everywhere. I'm saying it's possible for the Taylor series of $f$ at $b$ to diverge at each $xne b.$
– zhw.
Aug 11 at 4:25












You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
– Diger
Aug 11 at 4:39





You are picky ;-). Then define it via the Borel-Transform or even multiple Borel transforms until it converges.
– Diger
Aug 11 at 4:39













If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
– Diger
Aug 11 at 4:52





If $f(x)=sum_n a_n , x^n$ diverges then write $cal B(f)(x)=sum_n a_n/n! , x^n$ and use the function defined this way to calculate $f(x)=int_0^infty cal B(f)(tx) , e^-t , rm dt$
– Diger
Aug 11 at 4:52













 

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