ideals and variety

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I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.
algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra
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up vote
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I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.
algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra
3
I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
â Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44
Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
â Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
â user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.
algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra
I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.
algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra
edited Aug 24 at 15:06
asked Aug 24 at 2:07
user335468
255110
255110
3
I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
â Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44
Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
â Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
â user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57
add a comment |Â
3
I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
â Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44
Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
â Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
â user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57
3
3
I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
â Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44
I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
â Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44
Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
â Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05
Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
â Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
â user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
â user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.
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If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.
Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.
For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.
Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.
Hope this helps.
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.
By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.
answered Aug 24 at 3:15
Erik Shan
1463
1463
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If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.
Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.
For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.
Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.
Hope this helps.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.
Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.
For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.
Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.
Hope this helps.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.
Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.
For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.
Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.
Hope this helps.
If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.
Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.
For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.
Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.
Hope this helps.
answered Aug 24 at 3:06
awllower
9,91642471
9,91642471
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3
I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
â Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44
Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
â Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05
$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
â user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57