ideals and variety

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I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.



$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.







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  • 3




    I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
    – Eric Wofsey
    Aug 24 at 4:44










  • Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Aug 24 at 14:05










  • $I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
    – user335468
    Aug 24 at 14:57















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.



$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 3




    I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
    – Eric Wofsey
    Aug 24 at 4:44










  • Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Aug 24 at 14:05










  • $I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
    – user335468
    Aug 24 at 14:57













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.



$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question














I am trying to prove that $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)subset bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ if $Lambda$ is a finite index set.



$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials over $k[x_1,cdots,x_n]$. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ .
I know that if $Lambda$ is infinite, this statement is false, because it is very easy to show the other direction "$supseteq$" even in infinite case, and $Z(bigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda)$ is a closed set, while $bigcup_lambdainLambda Z(I_lambda)$ is not necessarily closed.
Can anyone help me?
Thanks.









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 24 at 15:06

























asked Aug 24 at 2:07









user335468

255110




255110







  • 3




    I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
    – Eric Wofsey
    Aug 24 at 4:44










  • Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Aug 24 at 14:05










  • $I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
    – user335468
    Aug 24 at 14:57













  • 3




    I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
    – Eric Wofsey
    Aug 24 at 4:44










  • Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Aug 24 at 14:05










  • $I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
    – user335468
    Aug 24 at 14:57








3




3




I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
– Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44




I can guess what your notation probably means, but you should really explain the context and what everything means since this notation is not universal.
– Eric Wofsey
Aug 24 at 4:44












Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05




Seconding Eric's concern. Please tell us, in the question body, what $I_lambda$s are et cetera.
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Aug 24 at 14:05












$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
– user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57





$I_lambda$ is a set of ideals of polynomials. $Z(I)=ainmathbbA^n: f(a)=0 text for all f in I$ sorry about the confusion.
– user335468
Aug 24 at 14:57











2 Answers
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By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.






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    up vote
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    If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.



    Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.



    For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
    Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.



    Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.




    Hope this helps.






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      up vote
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      By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
      If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
        If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
          If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          By induction, we only have to prove $Z(Icap J)subset Z(I)cup Z(J)$.
          If p is not contained in the right, then there exist $fin I, gin J$ such that $f(p)neq 0, g(p)neq 0$. $fgin Icap J$, but $fg$ does not vanish at p, which means $pnotin Z(Icap J)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 24 at 3:15









          Erik Shan

          1463




          1463




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.



              Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.



              For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
              Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.



              Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.




              Hope this helps.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.



                Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.



                For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
                Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.



                Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.




                Hope this helps.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.



                  Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.



                  For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
                  Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.



                  Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.




                  Hope this helps.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  If I understand correctly your question, you are trying to show that, if a prime $p$ contains $displaystylebigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambda$, then it contains one of $I_lambda$.



                  Suppose $p$ does not contain $I_lambda$ for any $lambdainLambda$ except for $lambda_0$, then we show that $p$ contains $I_lambda_0$.



                  For $lambdanelambda_0$, by our assumption there exists $x_lambdain I_lambdasetminus p$.
                  Then for any $xin I_lambda_0$, $$x_lambda_0cdotprod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdainprod_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteqbigcap_lambdainLambdaI_lambdasubseteq p,$$ but $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$. Thus $x_lambda_0in p$ as desired.



                  Notice that $prod_lambdanelambda_0x_lambdanotin p$ because $Lambda$ is finite, so this proof does not apply to infinite $Lambda$, as expected.




                  Hope this helps.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 24 at 3:06









                  awllower

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                  9,91642471



























                       

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