Show That $e^x$ and $e^-x$ are Linearly Independent

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To test for linear independence, let $$c_1e^x+c_2e^-x=0$$
Where $c_1$ and $c_2$ must equal $0$ for the two functions to be demonstrated to be linearly independent.
So for $x=0$: $$c_1=-c_2$$
And for $x=ln(1)$: $$c_1 = c_2$$
For $c_1$ to equal both $c_2$ and $-c_2$ requires $c_1$ to equal $0$, thus $c_2$ also equals $0$.
Is this sufficient to demonstrate linear independence?
linear-algebra differential-equations
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up vote
-3
down vote
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To test for linear independence, let $$c_1e^x+c_2e^-x=0$$
Where $c_1$ and $c_2$ must equal $0$ for the two functions to be demonstrated to be linearly independent.
So for $x=0$: $$c_1=-c_2$$
And for $x=ln(1)$: $$c_1 = c_2$$
For $c_1$ to equal both $c_2$ and $-c_2$ requires $c_1$ to equal $0$, thus $c_2$ also equals $0$.
Is this sufficient to demonstrate linear independence?
linear-algebra differential-equations
Your attempt makes no sense. $ln(1) = 0$...
â user21820
Aug 23 at 14:35
add a comment |Â
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
To test for linear independence, let $$c_1e^x+c_2e^-x=0$$
Where $c_1$ and $c_2$ must equal $0$ for the two functions to be demonstrated to be linearly independent.
So for $x=0$: $$c_1=-c_2$$
And for $x=ln(1)$: $$c_1 = c_2$$
For $c_1$ to equal both $c_2$ and $-c_2$ requires $c_1$ to equal $0$, thus $c_2$ also equals $0$.
Is this sufficient to demonstrate linear independence?
linear-algebra differential-equations
To test for linear independence, let $$c_1e^x+c_2e^-x=0$$
Where $c_1$ and $c_2$ must equal $0$ for the two functions to be demonstrated to be linearly independent.
So for $x=0$: $$c_1=-c_2$$
And for $x=ln(1)$: $$c_1 = c_2$$
For $c_1$ to equal both $c_2$ and $-c_2$ requires $c_1$ to equal $0$, thus $c_2$ also equals $0$.
Is this sufficient to demonstrate linear independence?
linear-algebra differential-equations
edited Aug 22 at 23:49
asked Aug 19 at 2:59
Alessandro Verniani
406
406
Your attempt makes no sense. $ln(1) = 0$...
â user21820
Aug 23 at 14:35
add a comment |Â
Your attempt makes no sense. $ln(1) = 0$...
â user21820
Aug 23 at 14:35
Your attempt makes no sense. $ln(1) = 0$...
â user21820
Aug 23 at 14:35
Your attempt makes no sense. $ln(1) = 0$...
â user21820
Aug 23 at 14:35
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Let $x$ be another value. For example, let $x=1$ and you will have $$c_1e+c_2e^-1=0$$
with that you can solve for $c_1$ and $c_2$ uniquely and they are zero or show the determinant of the corresponding matrix is non-zero.
$$beginbmatrixe & e^-1 \ 1 & 1 endbmatrix beginbmatrix c_1 \ c_2endbmatrix= beginbmatrix 0 \ 0endbmatrix$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
For $x=Ln(2)$, $2c_1+1over 2c_2=0$, with $c_1+c_2=0$ you deduce the result.
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Wronskian of $e^x$ and $e^-x$:
$$beginvmatrix
e^x&e^-x\
e^x&-e^-x\endvmatrix=-2neq 0$$so.....?
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Let $x$ be another value. For example, let $x=1$ and you will have $$c_1e+c_2e^-1=0$$
with that you can solve for $c_1$ and $c_2$ uniquely and they are zero or show the determinant of the corresponding matrix is non-zero.
$$beginbmatrixe & e^-1 \ 1 & 1 endbmatrix beginbmatrix c_1 \ c_2endbmatrix= beginbmatrix 0 \ 0endbmatrix$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Let $x$ be another value. For example, let $x=1$ and you will have $$c_1e+c_2e^-1=0$$
with that you can solve for $c_1$ and $c_2$ uniquely and they are zero or show the determinant of the corresponding matrix is non-zero.
$$beginbmatrixe & e^-1 \ 1 & 1 endbmatrix beginbmatrix c_1 \ c_2endbmatrix= beginbmatrix 0 \ 0endbmatrix$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Let $x$ be another value. For example, let $x=1$ and you will have $$c_1e+c_2e^-1=0$$
with that you can solve for $c_1$ and $c_2$ uniquely and they are zero or show the determinant of the corresponding matrix is non-zero.
$$beginbmatrixe & e^-1 \ 1 & 1 endbmatrix beginbmatrix c_1 \ c_2endbmatrix= beginbmatrix 0 \ 0endbmatrix$$
Let $x$ be another value. For example, let $x=1$ and you will have $$c_1e+c_2e^-1=0$$
with that you can solve for $c_1$ and $c_2$ uniquely and they are zero or show the determinant of the corresponding matrix is non-zero.
$$beginbmatrixe & e^-1 \ 1 & 1 endbmatrix beginbmatrix c_1 \ c_2endbmatrix= beginbmatrix 0 \ 0endbmatrix$$
answered Aug 19 at 3:03
Siong Thye Goh
79.7k145299
79.7k145299
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
For $x=Ln(2)$, $2c_1+1over 2c_2=0$, with $c_1+c_2=0$ you deduce the result.
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
For $x=Ln(2)$, $2c_1+1over 2c_2=0$, with $c_1+c_2=0$ you deduce the result.
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
For $x=Ln(2)$, $2c_1+1over 2c_2=0$, with $c_1+c_2=0$ you deduce the result.
For $x=Ln(2)$, $2c_1+1over 2c_2=0$, with $c_1+c_2=0$ you deduce the result.
answered Aug 19 at 3:03
Tsemo Aristide
51.8k11244
51.8k11244
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
add a comment |Â
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
Do you deduce the result by plugging in $c_1=-c_2$ such that $2c_1-0.5c_1=0$, meaning $1.5c_1=0$ and thus that $c_1=0=c_2$?
â Alessandro Verniani
Aug 19 at 3:14
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Wronskian of $e^x$ and $e^-x$:
$$beginvmatrix
e^x&e^-x\
e^x&-e^-x\endvmatrix=-2neq 0$$so.....?
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Wronskian of $e^x$ and $e^-x$:
$$beginvmatrix
e^x&e^-x\
e^x&-e^-x\endvmatrix=-2neq 0$$so.....?
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Wronskian of $e^x$ and $e^-x$:
$$beginvmatrix
e^x&e^-x\
e^x&-e^-x\endvmatrix=-2neq 0$$so.....?
Wronskian of $e^x$ and $e^-x$:
$$beginvmatrix
e^x&e^-x\
e^x&-e^-x\endvmatrix=-2neq 0$$so.....?
answered Aug 19 at 3:17
Chinnapparaj R
1,859317
1,859317
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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Your attempt makes no sense. $ln(1) = 0$...
â user21820
Aug 23 at 14:35