Show using the definition of convergence that the sequence 1/n does not converge to any number $L > 0$.
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Let $epsilon > 0$
$|1/n - L| < epsilon$ for some $ngeq N$. (definition of convergence)
This implies $-epsiloncdot n < 1 - nL < epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 - nL > -epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 < n(epsilon - L)$
Choose $epsilon = 1/n$
Therefore $nL < 2$
Therefore $L < 2/n$ for all $ngeq N$
By Archimedean property, we know that this only holds when $L = 0$.
Hence the sequence converges to $0$, by uniqueness of convergence the sequence does not converge to any $L > 0$.
My issue with this proof is that when I choose $epsilon = 1/n$, technically $epsilon$ is changing for every choice of $N$. Is this still a valid proof?
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence
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Let $epsilon > 0$
$|1/n - L| < epsilon$ for some $ngeq N$. (definition of convergence)
This implies $-epsiloncdot n < 1 - nL < epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 - nL > -epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 < n(epsilon - L)$
Choose $epsilon = 1/n$
Therefore $nL < 2$
Therefore $L < 2/n$ for all $ngeq N$
By Archimedean property, we know that this only holds when $L = 0$.
Hence the sequence converges to $0$, by uniqueness of convergence the sequence does not converge to any $L > 0$.
My issue with this proof is that when I choose $epsilon = 1/n$, technically $epsilon$ is changing for every choice of $N$. Is this still a valid proof?
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence
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up vote
1
down vote
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up vote
1
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Let $epsilon > 0$
$|1/n - L| < epsilon$ for some $ngeq N$. (definition of convergence)
This implies $-epsiloncdot n < 1 - nL < epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 - nL > -epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 < n(epsilon - L)$
Choose $epsilon = 1/n$
Therefore $nL < 2$
Therefore $L < 2/n$ for all $ngeq N$
By Archimedean property, we know that this only holds when $L = 0$.
Hence the sequence converges to $0$, by uniqueness of convergence the sequence does not converge to any $L > 0$.
My issue with this proof is that when I choose $epsilon = 1/n$, technically $epsilon$ is changing for every choice of $N$. Is this still a valid proof?
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence
Let $epsilon > 0$
$|1/n - L| < epsilon$ for some $ngeq N$. (definition of convergence)
This implies $-epsiloncdot n < 1 - nL < epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 - nL > -epsiloncdot n$
Therefore $1 < n(epsilon - L)$
Choose $epsilon = 1/n$
Therefore $nL < 2$
Therefore $L < 2/n$ for all $ngeq N$
By Archimedean property, we know that this only holds when $L = 0$.
Hence the sequence converges to $0$, by uniqueness of convergence the sequence does not converge to any $L > 0$.
My issue with this proof is that when I choose $epsilon = 1/n$, technically $epsilon$ is changing for every choice of $N$. Is this still a valid proof?
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence
edited Aug 19 at 9:06
Cornman
2,63221128
2,63221128
asked Aug 19 at 8:52
Matt_G
675
675
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2 Answers
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Since you are attempting to prove, by the definition, that the sequence does not converge (to $L$, when $Lneq0$), you are supposed to fix a $varepsilon>0$. But $varepsilon$ should be a fixed number neverthelsss.
Take $varepsilon=fraclvert Lrvert2$ and let $Ninmathbb N$. You want to prove that there's a $ngeqslant N$ such that $leftlvertfrac1n-LrightrvertgeqslantfracL2$. Just take $n$ large enough so that $ngeqslant N$ and also that $frac1n<fracL2$. Thenbeginalignleft|frac1n-Lright|&geqslantleft|frac1n-|L|right|\&=|L|-frac1n\&>|L|-fracL2\&=fracL2.endalign
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$a_n=1/n>0$, decreasing, bounded below by $0$, hence convergent.
Since $a_n >0$, $lim_n rightarrow infty a_n=L ge 0$.
Assume $L>0$.
Let $epsilon >0$.
There is a $n_0$, positive integer, s.t. for $n ge n_0$
$|1/n-L| lt epsilon$, or
$-epsilon < 1/n -L < epsilon$
$-epsilon +L < 1/n$.
Choose $epsilon =L/2$ (for example),
then $L/2 <1/n$.
Archimedean principle:
There is a $n_1$, positive integer, s.t.
$n_1>2/L$.
For $n > m=: max(n_0, n_1)$:
$L/2 > 1/m ge 1/n$,
contradiction.
Hence $L=0$.
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
Since you are attempting to prove, by the definition, that the sequence does not converge (to $L$, when $Lneq0$), you are supposed to fix a $varepsilon>0$. But $varepsilon$ should be a fixed number neverthelsss.
Take $varepsilon=fraclvert Lrvert2$ and let $Ninmathbb N$. You want to prove that there's a $ngeqslant N$ such that $leftlvertfrac1n-LrightrvertgeqslantfracL2$. Just take $n$ large enough so that $ngeqslant N$ and also that $frac1n<fracL2$. Thenbeginalignleft|frac1n-Lright|&geqslantleft|frac1n-|L|right|\&=|L|-frac1n\&>|L|-fracL2\&=fracL2.endalign
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up vote
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Since you are attempting to prove, by the definition, that the sequence does not converge (to $L$, when $Lneq0$), you are supposed to fix a $varepsilon>0$. But $varepsilon$ should be a fixed number neverthelsss.
Take $varepsilon=fraclvert Lrvert2$ and let $Ninmathbb N$. You want to prove that there's a $ngeqslant N$ such that $leftlvertfrac1n-LrightrvertgeqslantfracL2$. Just take $n$ large enough so that $ngeqslant N$ and also that $frac1n<fracL2$. Thenbeginalignleft|frac1n-Lright|&geqslantleft|frac1n-|L|right|\&=|L|-frac1n\&>|L|-fracL2\&=fracL2.endalign
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up vote
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up vote
2
down vote
Since you are attempting to prove, by the definition, that the sequence does not converge (to $L$, when $Lneq0$), you are supposed to fix a $varepsilon>0$. But $varepsilon$ should be a fixed number neverthelsss.
Take $varepsilon=fraclvert Lrvert2$ and let $Ninmathbb N$. You want to prove that there's a $ngeqslant N$ such that $leftlvertfrac1n-LrightrvertgeqslantfracL2$. Just take $n$ large enough so that $ngeqslant N$ and also that $frac1n<fracL2$. Thenbeginalignleft|frac1n-Lright|&geqslantleft|frac1n-|L|right|\&=|L|-frac1n\&>|L|-fracL2\&=fracL2.endalign
Since you are attempting to prove, by the definition, that the sequence does not converge (to $L$, when $Lneq0$), you are supposed to fix a $varepsilon>0$. But $varepsilon$ should be a fixed number neverthelsss.
Take $varepsilon=fraclvert Lrvert2$ and let $Ninmathbb N$. You want to prove that there's a $ngeqslant N$ such that $leftlvertfrac1n-LrightrvertgeqslantfracL2$. Just take $n$ large enough so that $ngeqslant N$ and also that $frac1n<fracL2$. Thenbeginalignleft|frac1n-Lright|&geqslantleft|frac1n-|L|right|\&=|L|-frac1n\&>|L|-fracL2\&=fracL2.endalign
answered Aug 19 at 9:02
José Carlos Santos
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118k16101180
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$a_n=1/n>0$, decreasing, bounded below by $0$, hence convergent.
Since $a_n >0$, $lim_n rightarrow infty a_n=L ge 0$.
Assume $L>0$.
Let $epsilon >0$.
There is a $n_0$, positive integer, s.t. for $n ge n_0$
$|1/n-L| lt epsilon$, or
$-epsilon < 1/n -L < epsilon$
$-epsilon +L < 1/n$.
Choose $epsilon =L/2$ (for example),
then $L/2 <1/n$.
Archimedean principle:
There is a $n_1$, positive integer, s.t.
$n_1>2/L$.
For $n > m=: max(n_0, n_1)$:
$L/2 > 1/m ge 1/n$,
contradiction.
Hence $L=0$.
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up vote
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down vote
$a_n=1/n>0$, decreasing, bounded below by $0$, hence convergent.
Since $a_n >0$, $lim_n rightarrow infty a_n=L ge 0$.
Assume $L>0$.
Let $epsilon >0$.
There is a $n_0$, positive integer, s.t. for $n ge n_0$
$|1/n-L| lt epsilon$, or
$-epsilon < 1/n -L < epsilon$
$-epsilon +L < 1/n$.
Choose $epsilon =L/2$ (for example),
then $L/2 <1/n$.
Archimedean principle:
There is a $n_1$, positive integer, s.t.
$n_1>2/L$.
For $n > m=: max(n_0, n_1)$:
$L/2 > 1/m ge 1/n$,
contradiction.
Hence $L=0$.
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up vote
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down vote
up vote
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down vote
$a_n=1/n>0$, decreasing, bounded below by $0$, hence convergent.
Since $a_n >0$, $lim_n rightarrow infty a_n=L ge 0$.
Assume $L>0$.
Let $epsilon >0$.
There is a $n_0$, positive integer, s.t. for $n ge n_0$
$|1/n-L| lt epsilon$, or
$-epsilon < 1/n -L < epsilon$
$-epsilon +L < 1/n$.
Choose $epsilon =L/2$ (for example),
then $L/2 <1/n$.
Archimedean principle:
There is a $n_1$, positive integer, s.t.
$n_1>2/L$.
For $n > m=: max(n_0, n_1)$:
$L/2 > 1/m ge 1/n$,
contradiction.
Hence $L=0$.
$a_n=1/n>0$, decreasing, bounded below by $0$, hence convergent.
Since $a_n >0$, $lim_n rightarrow infty a_n=L ge 0$.
Assume $L>0$.
Let $epsilon >0$.
There is a $n_0$, positive integer, s.t. for $n ge n_0$
$|1/n-L| lt epsilon$, or
$-epsilon < 1/n -L < epsilon$
$-epsilon +L < 1/n$.
Choose $epsilon =L/2$ (for example),
then $L/2 <1/n$.
Archimedean principle:
There is a $n_1$, positive integer, s.t.
$n_1>2/L$.
For $n > m=: max(n_0, n_1)$:
$L/2 > 1/m ge 1/n$,
contradiction.
Hence $L=0$.
answered Aug 19 at 9:27
Peter Szilas
8,0552617
8,0552617
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