No closest point to the subspace in $L_1([0,1])$

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Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.







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    Is $p=1$? $$
    – copper.hat
    Aug 19 at 2:56










  • @copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
    – simply connected donut
    Aug 19 at 4:28














up vote
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Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Is $p=1$? $$
    – copper.hat
    Aug 19 at 2:56










  • @copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
    – simply connected donut
    Aug 19 at 4:28












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.







share|cite|improve this question














Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 19 at 4:10

























asked Aug 19 at 2:29









simply connected donut

795




795







  • 1




    Is $p=1$? $$
    – copper.hat
    Aug 19 at 2:56










  • @copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
    – simply connected donut
    Aug 19 at 4:28












  • 1




    Is $p=1$? $$
    – copper.hat
    Aug 19 at 2:56










  • @copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
    – simply connected donut
    Aug 19 at 4:28







1




1




Is $p=1$? $$
– copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56




Is $p=1$? $$
– copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56












@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
– simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28




@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
– simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28










1 Answer
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The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
$$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.



But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.



Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
$$f_n(x)=begincases
n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
-n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
endcases$$
It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
$$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.






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    1 Answer
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    The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
    $$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
    with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.



    But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.



    Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
    $$f_n(x)=begincases
    n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
    -n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
    endcases$$
    It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
    $$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
    tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
      $$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
      with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.



      But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.



      Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
      $$f_n(x)=begincases
      n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
      -n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
      endcases$$
      It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
      $$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
      tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
        $$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
        with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.



        But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.



        Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
        $$f_n(x)=begincases
        n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
        -n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
        endcases$$
        It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
        $$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
        tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
        $$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
        with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.



        But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.



        Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
        $$f_n(x)=begincases
        n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
        -n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
        endcases$$
        It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
        $$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
        tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



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        answered Aug 19 at 3:07









        Cave Johnson

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