No closest point to the subspace in $L_1([0,1])$

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Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.
functional-analysis banach-spaces holder-inequality
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Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.
functional-analysis banach-spaces holder-inequality
1
Is $p=1$? $$
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56
@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
â simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28
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up vote
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down vote
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.
functional-analysis banach-spaces holder-inequality
Define $S_1=fin L_1([0,1]),int_0^1 xf(x) dx=0 $ . I want to show for every $epsilon>0$, there exist $f$ in $S_1$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 leq1/2+epsilon$, but there's no $f$ with $lVert f-1rVert_1 =1/2$. I got $lVert f-1rVert_1 geq1/2$ from Holder's inequality, but not able to move further. Any help or hint is appreciated.
functional-analysis banach-spaces holder-inequality
edited Aug 19 at 4:10
asked Aug 19 at 2:29
simply connected donut
795
795
1
Is $p=1$? $$
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56
@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
â simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
1
Is $p=1$? $$
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56
@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
â simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28
1
1
Is $p=1$? $$
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56
Is $p=1$? $$
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56
@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
â simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28
@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
â simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
$$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.
But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.
Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
$$f_n(x)=begincases
n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
-n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
endcases$$
It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
$$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
$$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.
But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.
Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
$$f_n(x)=begincases
n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
-n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
endcases$$
It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
$$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
$$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.
But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.
Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
$$f_n(x)=begincases
n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
-n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
endcases$$
It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
$$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
$$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.
But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.
Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
$$f_n(x)=begincases
n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
-n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
endcases$$
It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
$$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.
The inequality $|f-1|_1>1/2$ is immediate once you think about when the equality holds in Holder's inequality. That is
$$frac12=left|int_0^1x(f(x)-1)dxright|leint_0^1x|f(x)-1|dxleint_0^1|f(x)-1|dx$$
with the equality if and only if $f(x)=1$ a.e.. If you are feeling unsure about this, we may consider the integral of non-negative function $(1-x)|f(x)-1|$, which is zero, implying $(1-x)|f(x)-1|=0$ a.e. and hence our claim.
But if $f(x)=1$ a.e., then $fnotin S_1$ as $int_0^1 f=1/2$. So there's no $fin S_1$ such that $|f-1|=1/2$.
Example for the other direction can be constructed from our argument above. Define
$$f_n(x)=begincases
n^2/(n-1)^2,quad &xin[0,1-1/n]\
-n/(2x),quad&xin(1-1/n,1]
endcases$$
It's straight-forward to verify $f_nin S_1$. On the other hand,
$$|f_n-1|_1=left(1-frac1nright)frac2n-1(n-1)^2+frac1n+frac n2lnfrac nn-1$$
tends to $1/2$ as $ntoinfty$. In other words, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $|f_n-1|_1<1/2+epsilon$, as is desired.
answered Aug 19 at 3:07
Cave Johnson
3,8131326
3,8131326
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1
Is $p=1$? $$
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:56
@copper.hat Yes, I corrected this now.
â simply connected donut
Aug 19 at 4:28