Intuition behind Matrix being invertible iff determinant is non-zero

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I have been wondering about this question since I was in school. How can one number tell so much about the whole matrix being invertible or not?



I know the proof of this statement now. But I would like to know the intuition behind this result and why this result is actually true.




The proof I have in mind is:



If $A$ is invertible, then



$$ 1 = det(I) = det(AA^-1) = det(A)cdotdet(A^-1)$$



whence $det(A) neq 0$.



Conversely, if $det(A) neq 0$, we have



$$ A adj(A) = adj(A)A = det(A)I$$



whence $A$ is invertible.



$adj(A)$ is the adjugate matrix of $A$.



$$ adj(A)_ji = (-1)^i+jdet(A_ij)$$



where $A_ij$ is the matrix obtained from $A$ by deleting $ith$ row and $jth$ column.



Any other insightful proofs are also welcome.







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  • 5




    The way I tend to remember it is that the determinant gives you the scale factor associated with the transformation represented by the matrix. And any figure scaled to "zero" looks the same… so there's not really enough information left to invert the transformation.
    – Aaron Golden
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:18














up vote
13
down vote

favorite
12












I have been wondering about this question since I was in school. How can one number tell so much about the whole matrix being invertible or not?



I know the proof of this statement now. But I would like to know the intuition behind this result and why this result is actually true.




The proof I have in mind is:



If $A$ is invertible, then



$$ 1 = det(I) = det(AA^-1) = det(A)cdotdet(A^-1)$$



whence $det(A) neq 0$.



Conversely, if $det(A) neq 0$, we have



$$ A adj(A) = adj(A)A = det(A)I$$



whence $A$ is invertible.



$adj(A)$ is the adjugate matrix of $A$.



$$ adj(A)_ji = (-1)^i+jdet(A_ij)$$



where $A_ij$ is the matrix obtained from $A$ by deleting $ith$ row and $jth$ column.



Any other insightful proofs are also welcome.







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 5




    The way I tend to remember it is that the determinant gives you the scale factor associated with the transformation represented by the matrix. And any figure scaled to "zero" looks the same… so there's not really enough information left to invert the transformation.
    – Aaron Golden
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:18












up vote
13
down vote

favorite
12









up vote
13
down vote

favorite
12






12





I have been wondering about this question since I was in school. How can one number tell so much about the whole matrix being invertible or not?



I know the proof of this statement now. But I would like to know the intuition behind this result and why this result is actually true.




The proof I have in mind is:



If $A$ is invertible, then



$$ 1 = det(I) = det(AA^-1) = det(A)cdotdet(A^-1)$$



whence $det(A) neq 0$.



Conversely, if $det(A) neq 0$, we have



$$ A adj(A) = adj(A)A = det(A)I$$



whence $A$ is invertible.



$adj(A)$ is the adjugate matrix of $A$.



$$ adj(A)_ji = (-1)^i+jdet(A_ij)$$



where $A_ij$ is the matrix obtained from $A$ by deleting $ith$ row and $jth$ column.



Any other insightful proofs are also welcome.







share|cite|improve this question












I have been wondering about this question since I was in school. How can one number tell so much about the whole matrix being invertible or not?



I know the proof of this statement now. But I would like to know the intuition behind this result and why this result is actually true.




The proof I have in mind is:



If $A$ is invertible, then



$$ 1 = det(I) = det(AA^-1) = det(A)cdotdet(A^-1)$$



whence $det(A) neq 0$.



Conversely, if $det(A) neq 0$, we have



$$ A adj(A) = adj(A)A = det(A)I$$



whence $A$ is invertible.



$adj(A)$ is the adjugate matrix of $A$.



$$ adj(A)_ji = (-1)^i+jdet(A_ij)$$



where $A_ij$ is the matrix obtained from $A$ by deleting $ith$ row and $jth$ column.



Any other insightful proofs are also welcome.









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Sep 28 '13 at 7:02









Vishal Gupta

4,50021742




4,50021742







  • 5




    The way I tend to remember it is that the determinant gives you the scale factor associated with the transformation represented by the matrix. And any figure scaled to "zero" looks the same… so there's not really enough information left to invert the transformation.
    – Aaron Golden
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:18












  • 5




    The way I tend to remember it is that the determinant gives you the scale factor associated with the transformation represented by the matrix. And any figure scaled to "zero" looks the same… so there's not really enough information left to invert the transformation.
    – Aaron Golden
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:18







5




5




The way I tend to remember it is that the determinant gives you the scale factor associated with the transformation represented by the matrix. And any figure scaled to "zero" looks the same… so there's not really enough information left to invert the transformation.
– Aaron Golden
Sep 28 '13 at 7:18




The way I tend to remember it is that the determinant gives you the scale factor associated with the transformation represented by the matrix. And any figure scaled to "zero" looks the same… so there's not really enough information left to invert the transformation.
– Aaron Golden
Sep 28 '13 at 7:18










6 Answers
6






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oldest

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up vote
24
down vote













Here's an explanation for three dimensional space ($3 times 3$ matrices). That's the space I live in, so it's the one in which my intuition works best :-).



Suppose we have a $3 times 3$ matrix $mathbfM$. Let's think about the mapping $mathbfy = f(mathbfx) = mathbfMmathbfx$. The matrix $mathbfM$ is invertible iff this mapping is invertible. In that case, given $mathbfy$, we can compute the corresponding $mathbfx$ as $mathbfx = mathbfM^-1mathbfy$.



Let $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ be 3D vectors that form the columns of $mathbfM$. We know that $detmathbfM = mathbfu cdot (mathbfv times mathbfw)$, which is the volume of the parallelipiped having $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ as is edges.



Now lets think about the effect of the mapping $f$ on the "basic cube" whose edges are the three axis vectors $mathbfi$, $mathbfj$, $mathbfk$. You can check that $f(mathbfi) = mathbfu$, $f(mathbfj) = mathbfv$, and $f(mathbfk) = mathbfw$. So the mapping $f$ deforms (shears, scales) the basic cube, turning it into the parallelipiped with sides $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$.



Since the determinant of $mathbfM$ gives the volume of this parallelipiped, it measures the "volume changing" effect of the mapping $f$. In particular, if $detmathbfM = 0$, this means that the mapping $f$ squashes the basic cube into something flat, with zero volume, like a planar shape, or maybe even a line. A "squash-to-flat" deformation like this can't possibly be invertible because it's not one-to-one --- several points of the cube will get "squashed" onto the same point of the deformed shape. So, the mapping $f$ (or the matrix $mathbfM$) is invertible if and only if it has a no squash-to-flat effect, which is the case if and only if the determinant is non-zero.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
    – Matt Klein
    Oct 9 '13 at 2:37










  • Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
    – bubba
    Oct 9 '13 at 6:14










  • nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
    – houda
    Jun 8 '15 at 20:27

















up vote
7
down vote













I know this is pretty old, but for the people who might find this in a google search (I know I did), I thought I'd add this.



Remember that the space of all $n times n$ matrices is isomorphic to the space of all operators on an $n$-dimensional vector space. In other words, the matrix is just some linear operator. Recall that the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues. Both $ mathbbC $ and $ mathbbR $ are integral domains so if the determinant is $0$ then that means you have a zero eigenvalue. That means, if your matrix is $A$, there exists a vector $0 neq overlinev $ such that $ (A-0I)overlinev=overline0 $ which means $ Aoverlinev=overline0 $. Clearly $ overline0 $ gets sent to $ overline0 $ but so does some other non-zero vector. So the transformation isn't injective and, thus, non-invertible. This is just the intuition though.






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  • This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
    – Vishal Gupta
    Jul 8 '15 at 23:57

















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2
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Another classical way is more understandable: note that a determinant is not changed if we add one row to other and one column to another. Thus we obtain a diagonal matrix $B$. This matrix differs from $A$ by matrix-multipliers which correspond to elementary transformations and are invertible. So $A$ is invertible iff $B$ is invertible iff $det(B) neq 0$ iff $det(A) neq 0$.






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  • Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
    – Vishal Gupta
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:29










  • No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
    – Boris Novikov
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:36











  • OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
    – Vishal Gupta
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:41










  • I will write the answer more detaily.
    – Boris Novikov
    Sep 28 '13 at 7:48

















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2
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The absolute value of the determinant of a matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the column vectors of that matrix.



Michael






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  • Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
    – Vishal Gupta
    Sep 28 '13 at 8:53











  • For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
    – Michael Hoppe
    Sep 28 '13 at 10:34










  • @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
    – jkn
    Sep 28 '13 at 10:39

















up vote
1
down vote













I personally think of the determinant as a function $f(A)$ that has the following three properties:



  1. $f(AB) = f(A) f(B)$


  2. $f(T)$ = product of diagonals for triangular matrix $T$


  3. $f(E) neq 0$ for an elementary matrix $E$


An elementary matrix $E$ is a matrix such that $EA$ either multiples a row, swaps a row, or swaps and adds a row of $A$.



Now Gaussian elimination is the process of applying elementary matrixes to $A$ and obtaining a upper triangular matrix. That is, every matrix can be written as
$$ A = (E_1 cdots E_n)^-1 T$$



Which means
$$f(A) = f(E_1)^-1 cdots f(E_n)^-1 f(T)$$
and is nonzero if and only if $f(T)$ is nonzero. But a matrix is invertible if and only if the gaussian eliminated form $T$ has nonzero elements in the diagonal. That is, exactly, that $f(T) neq 0$.




In my mind, any other definitions of the determinant, such as the practical way of computing it with adjunct matrices and such, are not the "real" or "primary" definition of the determinant. We want the determinant function to satisfy the above three properties. We also probably want the determinant to be a polynomial in the entries of our matrix. This then should give us the method of computing the determinant.






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    up vote
    0
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    Consider $A$, an $M$ x $N$ matrix to be a mapping from $R^n$ to $R^m$. If the determinant is zero, the columns of $A$ are linearly dependent. This means that the nullspace of $A$ is nonempty. Hence the linear mapping $A$ is non-invertible, since several $x$ get mapped to the same value b, i.e there are multiple solutions to $Ax=b$. Example - both $x$ and $x+v$ get mapped to b, where $v$ is a vector in the nullspace of $A$






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      6 Answers
      6






      active

      oldest

      votes








      6 Answers
      6






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      24
      down vote













      Here's an explanation for three dimensional space ($3 times 3$ matrices). That's the space I live in, so it's the one in which my intuition works best :-).



      Suppose we have a $3 times 3$ matrix $mathbfM$. Let's think about the mapping $mathbfy = f(mathbfx) = mathbfMmathbfx$. The matrix $mathbfM$ is invertible iff this mapping is invertible. In that case, given $mathbfy$, we can compute the corresponding $mathbfx$ as $mathbfx = mathbfM^-1mathbfy$.



      Let $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ be 3D vectors that form the columns of $mathbfM$. We know that $detmathbfM = mathbfu cdot (mathbfv times mathbfw)$, which is the volume of the parallelipiped having $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ as is edges.



      Now lets think about the effect of the mapping $f$ on the "basic cube" whose edges are the three axis vectors $mathbfi$, $mathbfj$, $mathbfk$. You can check that $f(mathbfi) = mathbfu$, $f(mathbfj) = mathbfv$, and $f(mathbfk) = mathbfw$. So the mapping $f$ deforms (shears, scales) the basic cube, turning it into the parallelipiped with sides $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$.



      Since the determinant of $mathbfM$ gives the volume of this parallelipiped, it measures the "volume changing" effect of the mapping $f$. In particular, if $detmathbfM = 0$, this means that the mapping $f$ squashes the basic cube into something flat, with zero volume, like a planar shape, or maybe even a line. A "squash-to-flat" deformation like this can't possibly be invertible because it's not one-to-one --- several points of the cube will get "squashed" onto the same point of the deformed shape. So, the mapping $f$ (or the matrix $mathbfM$) is invertible if and only if it has a no squash-to-flat effect, which is the case if and only if the determinant is non-zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer


















      • 2




        I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
        – Matt Klein
        Oct 9 '13 at 2:37










      • Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
        – bubba
        Oct 9 '13 at 6:14










      • nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
        – houda
        Jun 8 '15 at 20:27














      up vote
      24
      down vote













      Here's an explanation for three dimensional space ($3 times 3$ matrices). That's the space I live in, so it's the one in which my intuition works best :-).



      Suppose we have a $3 times 3$ matrix $mathbfM$. Let's think about the mapping $mathbfy = f(mathbfx) = mathbfMmathbfx$. The matrix $mathbfM$ is invertible iff this mapping is invertible. In that case, given $mathbfy$, we can compute the corresponding $mathbfx$ as $mathbfx = mathbfM^-1mathbfy$.



      Let $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ be 3D vectors that form the columns of $mathbfM$. We know that $detmathbfM = mathbfu cdot (mathbfv times mathbfw)$, which is the volume of the parallelipiped having $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ as is edges.



      Now lets think about the effect of the mapping $f$ on the "basic cube" whose edges are the three axis vectors $mathbfi$, $mathbfj$, $mathbfk$. You can check that $f(mathbfi) = mathbfu$, $f(mathbfj) = mathbfv$, and $f(mathbfk) = mathbfw$. So the mapping $f$ deforms (shears, scales) the basic cube, turning it into the parallelipiped with sides $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$.



      Since the determinant of $mathbfM$ gives the volume of this parallelipiped, it measures the "volume changing" effect of the mapping $f$. In particular, if $detmathbfM = 0$, this means that the mapping $f$ squashes the basic cube into something flat, with zero volume, like a planar shape, or maybe even a line. A "squash-to-flat" deformation like this can't possibly be invertible because it's not one-to-one --- several points of the cube will get "squashed" onto the same point of the deformed shape. So, the mapping $f$ (or the matrix $mathbfM$) is invertible if and only if it has a no squash-to-flat effect, which is the case if and only if the determinant is non-zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer


















      • 2




        I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
        – Matt Klein
        Oct 9 '13 at 2:37










      • Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
        – bubba
        Oct 9 '13 at 6:14










      • nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
        – houda
        Jun 8 '15 at 20:27












      up vote
      24
      down vote










      up vote
      24
      down vote









      Here's an explanation for three dimensional space ($3 times 3$ matrices). That's the space I live in, so it's the one in which my intuition works best :-).



      Suppose we have a $3 times 3$ matrix $mathbfM$. Let's think about the mapping $mathbfy = f(mathbfx) = mathbfMmathbfx$. The matrix $mathbfM$ is invertible iff this mapping is invertible. In that case, given $mathbfy$, we can compute the corresponding $mathbfx$ as $mathbfx = mathbfM^-1mathbfy$.



      Let $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ be 3D vectors that form the columns of $mathbfM$. We know that $detmathbfM = mathbfu cdot (mathbfv times mathbfw)$, which is the volume of the parallelipiped having $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ as is edges.



      Now lets think about the effect of the mapping $f$ on the "basic cube" whose edges are the three axis vectors $mathbfi$, $mathbfj$, $mathbfk$. You can check that $f(mathbfi) = mathbfu$, $f(mathbfj) = mathbfv$, and $f(mathbfk) = mathbfw$. So the mapping $f$ deforms (shears, scales) the basic cube, turning it into the parallelipiped with sides $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$.



      Since the determinant of $mathbfM$ gives the volume of this parallelipiped, it measures the "volume changing" effect of the mapping $f$. In particular, if $detmathbfM = 0$, this means that the mapping $f$ squashes the basic cube into something flat, with zero volume, like a planar shape, or maybe even a line. A "squash-to-flat" deformation like this can't possibly be invertible because it's not one-to-one --- several points of the cube will get "squashed" onto the same point of the deformed shape. So, the mapping $f$ (or the matrix $mathbfM$) is invertible if and only if it has a no squash-to-flat effect, which is the case if and only if the determinant is non-zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer














      Here's an explanation for three dimensional space ($3 times 3$ matrices). That's the space I live in, so it's the one in which my intuition works best :-).



      Suppose we have a $3 times 3$ matrix $mathbfM$. Let's think about the mapping $mathbfy = f(mathbfx) = mathbfMmathbfx$. The matrix $mathbfM$ is invertible iff this mapping is invertible. In that case, given $mathbfy$, we can compute the corresponding $mathbfx$ as $mathbfx = mathbfM^-1mathbfy$.



      Let $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ be 3D vectors that form the columns of $mathbfM$. We know that $detmathbfM = mathbfu cdot (mathbfv times mathbfw)$, which is the volume of the parallelipiped having $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$ as is edges.



      Now lets think about the effect of the mapping $f$ on the "basic cube" whose edges are the three axis vectors $mathbfi$, $mathbfj$, $mathbfk$. You can check that $f(mathbfi) = mathbfu$, $f(mathbfj) = mathbfv$, and $f(mathbfk) = mathbfw$. So the mapping $f$ deforms (shears, scales) the basic cube, turning it into the parallelipiped with sides $mathbfu$, $mathbfv$, $mathbfw$.



      Since the determinant of $mathbfM$ gives the volume of this parallelipiped, it measures the "volume changing" effect of the mapping $f$. In particular, if $detmathbfM = 0$, this means that the mapping $f$ squashes the basic cube into something flat, with zero volume, like a planar shape, or maybe even a line. A "squash-to-flat" deformation like this can't possibly be invertible because it's not one-to-one --- several points of the cube will get "squashed" onto the same point of the deformed shape. So, the mapping $f$ (or the matrix $mathbfM$) is invertible if and only if it has a no squash-to-flat effect, which is the case if and only if the determinant is non-zero.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Sep 16 '16 at 0:24

























      answered Sep 28 '13 at 10:24









      bubba

      29k32882




      29k32882







      • 2




        I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
        – Matt Klein
        Oct 9 '13 at 2:37










      • Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
        – bubba
        Oct 9 '13 at 6:14










      • nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
        – houda
        Jun 8 '15 at 20:27












      • 2




        I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
        – Matt Klein
        Oct 9 '13 at 2:37










      • Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
        – bubba
        Oct 9 '13 at 6:14










      • nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
        – houda
        Jun 8 '15 at 20:27







      2




      2




      I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
      – Matt Klein
      Oct 9 '13 at 2:37




      I signed up just so I could upvote this. Thank you. Very informative and intuitive.
      – Matt Klein
      Oct 9 '13 at 2:37












      Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
      – bubba
      Oct 9 '13 at 6:14




      Thanks, Matt. I'm glad it helped.
      – bubba
      Oct 9 '13 at 6:14












      nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
      – houda
      Jun 8 '15 at 20:27




      nice explanation ! +1 only for "3D is where we live, so it's where our intuition works best" I was wondering what would it be if we live in higher dimensional space ? :)
      – houda
      Jun 8 '15 at 20:27










      up vote
      7
      down vote













      I know this is pretty old, but for the people who might find this in a google search (I know I did), I thought I'd add this.



      Remember that the space of all $n times n$ matrices is isomorphic to the space of all operators on an $n$-dimensional vector space. In other words, the matrix is just some linear operator. Recall that the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues. Both $ mathbbC $ and $ mathbbR $ are integral domains so if the determinant is $0$ then that means you have a zero eigenvalue. That means, if your matrix is $A$, there exists a vector $0 neq overlinev $ such that $ (A-0I)overlinev=overline0 $ which means $ Aoverlinev=overline0 $. Clearly $ overline0 $ gets sent to $ overline0 $ but so does some other non-zero vector. So the transformation isn't injective and, thus, non-invertible. This is just the intuition though.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
        – Vishal Gupta
        Jul 8 '15 at 23:57














      up vote
      7
      down vote













      I know this is pretty old, but for the people who might find this in a google search (I know I did), I thought I'd add this.



      Remember that the space of all $n times n$ matrices is isomorphic to the space of all operators on an $n$-dimensional vector space. In other words, the matrix is just some linear operator. Recall that the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues. Both $ mathbbC $ and $ mathbbR $ are integral domains so if the determinant is $0$ then that means you have a zero eigenvalue. That means, if your matrix is $A$, there exists a vector $0 neq overlinev $ such that $ (A-0I)overlinev=overline0 $ which means $ Aoverlinev=overline0 $. Clearly $ overline0 $ gets sent to $ overline0 $ but so does some other non-zero vector. So the transformation isn't injective and, thus, non-invertible. This is just the intuition though.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
        – Vishal Gupta
        Jul 8 '15 at 23:57












      up vote
      7
      down vote










      up vote
      7
      down vote









      I know this is pretty old, but for the people who might find this in a google search (I know I did), I thought I'd add this.



      Remember that the space of all $n times n$ matrices is isomorphic to the space of all operators on an $n$-dimensional vector space. In other words, the matrix is just some linear operator. Recall that the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues. Both $ mathbbC $ and $ mathbbR $ are integral domains so if the determinant is $0$ then that means you have a zero eigenvalue. That means, if your matrix is $A$, there exists a vector $0 neq overlinev $ such that $ (A-0I)overlinev=overline0 $ which means $ Aoverlinev=overline0 $. Clearly $ overline0 $ gets sent to $ overline0 $ but so does some other non-zero vector. So the transformation isn't injective and, thus, non-invertible. This is just the intuition though.






      share|cite|improve this answer














      I know this is pretty old, but for the people who might find this in a google search (I know I did), I thought I'd add this.



      Remember that the space of all $n times n$ matrices is isomorphic to the space of all operators on an $n$-dimensional vector space. In other words, the matrix is just some linear operator. Recall that the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues. Both $ mathbbC $ and $ mathbbR $ are integral domains so if the determinant is $0$ then that means you have a zero eigenvalue. That means, if your matrix is $A$, there exists a vector $0 neq overlinev $ such that $ (A-0I)overlinev=overline0 $ which means $ Aoverlinev=overline0 $. Clearly $ overline0 $ gets sent to $ overline0 $ but so does some other non-zero vector. So the transformation isn't injective and, thus, non-invertible. This is just the intuition though.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Jul 8 '15 at 17:33









      Ludolila

      2,41041727




      2,41041727










      answered Jul 8 '15 at 16:49









      Tom H.

      9116




      9116











      • This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
        – Vishal Gupta
        Jul 8 '15 at 23:57
















      • This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
        – Vishal Gupta
        Jul 8 '15 at 23:57















      This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
      – Vishal Gupta
      Jul 8 '15 at 23:57




      This is not just intuition. This is a rigorous proof and a very good one at that!
      – Vishal Gupta
      Jul 8 '15 at 23:57










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Another classical way is more understandable: note that a determinant is not changed if we add one row to other and one column to another. Thus we obtain a diagonal matrix $B$. This matrix differs from $A$ by matrix-multipliers which correspond to elementary transformations and are invertible. So $A$ is invertible iff $B$ is invertible iff $det(B) neq 0$ iff $det(A) neq 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:29










      • No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:36











      • OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:41










      • I will write the answer more detaily.
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:48














      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Another classical way is more understandable: note that a determinant is not changed if we add one row to other and one column to another. Thus we obtain a diagonal matrix $B$. This matrix differs from $A$ by matrix-multipliers which correspond to elementary transformations and are invertible. So $A$ is invertible iff $B$ is invertible iff $det(B) neq 0$ iff $det(A) neq 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:29










      • No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:36











      • OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:41










      • I will write the answer more detaily.
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:48












      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      Another classical way is more understandable: note that a determinant is not changed if we add one row to other and one column to another. Thus we obtain a diagonal matrix $B$. This matrix differs from $A$ by matrix-multipliers which correspond to elementary transformations and are invertible. So $A$ is invertible iff $B$ is invertible iff $det(B) neq 0$ iff $det(A) neq 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer














      Another classical way is more understandable: note that a determinant is not changed if we add one row to other and one column to another. Thus we obtain a diagonal matrix $B$. This matrix differs from $A$ by matrix-multipliers which correspond to elementary transformations and are invertible. So $A$ is invertible iff $B$ is invertible iff $det(B) neq 0$ iff $det(A) neq 0$.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Sep 28 '13 at 7:56

























      answered Sep 28 '13 at 7:18









      Boris Novikov

      16k11428




      16k11428











      • Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:29










      • No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:36











      • OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:41










      • I will write the answer more detaily.
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:48
















      • Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:29










      • No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:36











      • OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:41










      • I will write the answer more detaily.
        – Boris Novikov
        Sep 28 '13 at 7:48















      Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
      – Vishal Gupta
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:29




      Sorry, I do not understand the import of your statement. Do you mean to use the row-reduced echelon form?
      – Vishal Gupta
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:29












      No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
      – Boris Novikov
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:36





      No, of course, I mean adding also columns (one to another).
      – Boris Novikov
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:36













      OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
      – Vishal Gupta
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:41




      OK. But that does the case when $A$ is invertible. If $det(A) neq 0$, are we sure that we will land up with identity by performing these operations?
      – Vishal Gupta
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:41












      I will write the answer more detaily.
      – Boris Novikov
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:48




      I will write the answer more detaily.
      – Boris Novikov
      Sep 28 '13 at 7:48










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The absolute value of the determinant of a matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the column vectors of that matrix.



      Michael






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 8:53











      • For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
        – Michael Hoppe
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:34










      • @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
        – jkn
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:39














      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The absolute value of the determinant of a matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the column vectors of that matrix.



      Michael






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 8:53











      • For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
        – Michael Hoppe
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:34










      • @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
        – jkn
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:39












      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      The absolute value of the determinant of a matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the column vectors of that matrix.



      Michael






      share|cite|improve this answer












      The absolute value of the determinant of a matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the column vectors of that matrix.



      Michael







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Sep 28 '13 at 8:14









      Michael Hoppe

      9,62131432




      9,62131432











      • Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 8:53











      • For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
        – Michael Hoppe
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:34










      • @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
        – jkn
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:39
















      • Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
        – Vishal Gupta
        Sep 28 '13 at 8:53











      • For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
        – Michael Hoppe
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:34










      • @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
        – jkn
        Sep 28 '13 at 10:39















      Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
      – Vishal Gupta
      Sep 28 '13 at 8:53





      Then I would beg to ask for an intuition as to why the determinant is the volume and also how the invertibility of the matrix is related to the volume of the parellelopiped being non-zero.
      – Vishal Gupta
      Sep 28 '13 at 8:53













      For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
      – Michael Hoppe
      Sep 28 '13 at 10:34




      For the volume thing remember that the determinant of a diagonal matrix equals the product of its diagonal elements. For the invertibility the column vectors need to be lin. indep. What is the volume of a parallelepiped spanned by lin. dep. vectors?
      – Michael Hoppe
      Sep 28 '13 at 10:34












      @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
      – jkn
      Sep 28 '13 at 10:39




      @Vishal Relevant answer to determinant/volume. For the invertibility/volume think about the nullspace of a non-invertible matrix.
      – jkn
      Sep 28 '13 at 10:39










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      I personally think of the determinant as a function $f(A)$ that has the following three properties:



      1. $f(AB) = f(A) f(B)$


      2. $f(T)$ = product of diagonals for triangular matrix $T$


      3. $f(E) neq 0$ for an elementary matrix $E$


      An elementary matrix $E$ is a matrix such that $EA$ either multiples a row, swaps a row, or swaps and adds a row of $A$.



      Now Gaussian elimination is the process of applying elementary matrixes to $A$ and obtaining a upper triangular matrix. That is, every matrix can be written as
      $$ A = (E_1 cdots E_n)^-1 T$$



      Which means
      $$f(A) = f(E_1)^-1 cdots f(E_n)^-1 f(T)$$
      and is nonzero if and only if $f(T)$ is nonzero. But a matrix is invertible if and only if the gaussian eliminated form $T$ has nonzero elements in the diagonal. That is, exactly, that $f(T) neq 0$.




      In my mind, any other definitions of the determinant, such as the practical way of computing it with adjunct matrices and such, are not the "real" or "primary" definition of the determinant. We want the determinant function to satisfy the above three properties. We also probably want the determinant to be a polynomial in the entries of our matrix. This then should give us the method of computing the determinant.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        I personally think of the determinant as a function $f(A)$ that has the following three properties:



        1. $f(AB) = f(A) f(B)$


        2. $f(T)$ = product of diagonals for triangular matrix $T$


        3. $f(E) neq 0$ for an elementary matrix $E$


        An elementary matrix $E$ is a matrix such that $EA$ either multiples a row, swaps a row, or swaps and adds a row of $A$.



        Now Gaussian elimination is the process of applying elementary matrixes to $A$ and obtaining a upper triangular matrix. That is, every matrix can be written as
        $$ A = (E_1 cdots E_n)^-1 T$$



        Which means
        $$f(A) = f(E_1)^-1 cdots f(E_n)^-1 f(T)$$
        and is nonzero if and only if $f(T)$ is nonzero. But a matrix is invertible if and only if the gaussian eliminated form $T$ has nonzero elements in the diagonal. That is, exactly, that $f(T) neq 0$.




        In my mind, any other definitions of the determinant, such as the practical way of computing it with adjunct matrices and such, are not the "real" or "primary" definition of the determinant. We want the determinant function to satisfy the above three properties. We also probably want the determinant to be a polynomial in the entries of our matrix. This then should give us the method of computing the determinant.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          I personally think of the determinant as a function $f(A)$ that has the following three properties:



          1. $f(AB) = f(A) f(B)$


          2. $f(T)$ = product of diagonals for triangular matrix $T$


          3. $f(E) neq 0$ for an elementary matrix $E$


          An elementary matrix $E$ is a matrix such that $EA$ either multiples a row, swaps a row, or swaps and adds a row of $A$.



          Now Gaussian elimination is the process of applying elementary matrixes to $A$ and obtaining a upper triangular matrix. That is, every matrix can be written as
          $$ A = (E_1 cdots E_n)^-1 T$$



          Which means
          $$f(A) = f(E_1)^-1 cdots f(E_n)^-1 f(T)$$
          and is nonzero if and only if $f(T)$ is nonzero. But a matrix is invertible if and only if the gaussian eliminated form $T$ has nonzero elements in the diagonal. That is, exactly, that $f(T) neq 0$.




          In my mind, any other definitions of the determinant, such as the practical way of computing it with adjunct matrices and such, are not the "real" or "primary" definition of the determinant. We want the determinant function to satisfy the above three properties. We also probably want the determinant to be a polynomial in the entries of our matrix. This then should give us the method of computing the determinant.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          I personally think of the determinant as a function $f(A)$ that has the following three properties:



          1. $f(AB) = f(A) f(B)$


          2. $f(T)$ = product of diagonals for triangular matrix $T$


          3. $f(E) neq 0$ for an elementary matrix $E$


          An elementary matrix $E$ is a matrix such that $EA$ either multiples a row, swaps a row, or swaps and adds a row of $A$.



          Now Gaussian elimination is the process of applying elementary matrixes to $A$ and obtaining a upper triangular matrix. That is, every matrix can be written as
          $$ A = (E_1 cdots E_n)^-1 T$$



          Which means
          $$f(A) = f(E_1)^-1 cdots f(E_n)^-1 f(T)$$
          and is nonzero if and only if $f(T)$ is nonzero. But a matrix is invertible if and only if the gaussian eliminated form $T$ has nonzero elements in the diagonal. That is, exactly, that $f(T) neq 0$.




          In my mind, any other definitions of the determinant, such as the practical way of computing it with adjunct matrices and such, are not the "real" or "primary" definition of the determinant. We want the determinant function to satisfy the above three properties. We also probably want the determinant to be a polynomial in the entries of our matrix. This then should give us the method of computing the determinant.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 22 '15 at 2:03









          abnry

          11.6k22264




          11.6k22264




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Consider $A$, an $M$ x $N$ matrix to be a mapping from $R^n$ to $R^m$. If the determinant is zero, the columns of $A$ are linearly dependent. This means that the nullspace of $A$ is nonempty. Hence the linear mapping $A$ is non-invertible, since several $x$ get mapped to the same value b, i.e there are multiple solutions to $Ax=b$. Example - both $x$ and $x+v$ get mapped to b, where $v$ is a vector in the nullspace of $A$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Consider $A$, an $M$ x $N$ matrix to be a mapping from $R^n$ to $R^m$. If the determinant is zero, the columns of $A$ are linearly dependent. This means that the nullspace of $A$ is nonempty. Hence the linear mapping $A$ is non-invertible, since several $x$ get mapped to the same value b, i.e there are multiple solutions to $Ax=b$. Example - both $x$ and $x+v$ get mapped to b, where $v$ is a vector in the nullspace of $A$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Consider $A$, an $M$ x $N$ matrix to be a mapping from $R^n$ to $R^m$. If the determinant is zero, the columns of $A$ are linearly dependent. This means that the nullspace of $A$ is nonempty. Hence the linear mapping $A$ is non-invertible, since several $x$ get mapped to the same value b, i.e there are multiple solutions to $Ax=b$. Example - both $x$ and $x+v$ get mapped to b, where $v$ is a vector in the nullspace of $A$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Consider $A$, an $M$ x $N$ matrix to be a mapping from $R^n$ to $R^m$. If the determinant is zero, the columns of $A$ are linearly dependent. This means that the nullspace of $A$ is nonempty. Hence the linear mapping $A$ is non-invertible, since several $x$ get mapped to the same value b, i.e there are multiple solutions to $Ax=b$. Example - both $x$ and $x+v$ get mapped to b, where $v$ is a vector in the nullspace of $A$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 17 at 20:15









                  Sridhar Thiagarajan

                  145215




                  145215






















                       

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