Paradoxes that remain paradoxical even when you understand the underlying theory

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It strikes me that the Banach-Tarski paradox (rearranging ball partitions)
is not dispelled even when you understand the underlying mathematics.
Perhaps Parrondo's paradox in Game Theory (sawtooth losing → winning) is analogous, in that it retains for me a sense of magic
even after studying simulations.
Perhaps Simpson's paradox in statistics (two plusses's→minus) is borderline, in that, even though it is easy to fall into it, it is
also easy to see why one's intuition was incorrect.




Q.Which mathematical "paradoxes" remain paradoxical even when you understand them
thoroughly?




I would judge Braess' paradox
(adding a shortcut to a road network impedes traffic) as the type of paradox that
is dispelled upon understanding it. Whereas the Banach-Tarski paradox remains
(for me) paradoxical even though I think I understand the mathematics
behind it.



A defensible answer to Q is: No paradoxes remain paradoxical when thoroughly understood—that's what it means to "understand"!







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Maybe it's just me but I find something very simple that everyone understands paradoxical: voting with millions of voters...why does it matter if I vote? This is really the Sorites paradox in disguise, but the pile of sand version doesn't do it for me.
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:39






  • 1




    I think "paradox" here means "counter to the understanding we derive from the world around us in everyday life". Mathematics is (in some sense) a model of this real world. We make up definitions of abstract objects that mimic the behaviour of the real world, and then we reason about these objects, hoping that our reasoning will tell us something interesting about the real objects they represent. So, when the mathematics gives us results that are counter-intuitive, my feeling is that the mathematical definitions might not be suitable models of reality.
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:43











  • My other answer is the one you anticipated in your last paragraph :-)
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:45






  • 1




    Perhaps : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burali-Forti_paradox
    – DanielV
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:59














up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1












It strikes me that the Banach-Tarski paradox (rearranging ball partitions)
is not dispelled even when you understand the underlying mathematics.
Perhaps Parrondo's paradox in Game Theory (sawtooth losing → winning) is analogous, in that it retains for me a sense of magic
even after studying simulations.
Perhaps Simpson's paradox in statistics (two plusses's→minus) is borderline, in that, even though it is easy to fall into it, it is
also easy to see why one's intuition was incorrect.




Q.Which mathematical "paradoxes" remain paradoxical even when you understand them
thoroughly?




I would judge Braess' paradox
(adding a shortcut to a road network impedes traffic) as the type of paradox that
is dispelled upon understanding it. Whereas the Banach-Tarski paradox remains
(for me) paradoxical even though I think I understand the mathematics
behind it.



A defensible answer to Q is: No paradoxes remain paradoxical when thoroughly understood—that's what it means to "understand"!







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Maybe it's just me but I find something very simple that everyone understands paradoxical: voting with millions of voters...why does it matter if I vote? This is really the Sorites paradox in disguise, but the pile of sand version doesn't do it for me.
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:39






  • 1




    I think "paradox" here means "counter to the understanding we derive from the world around us in everyday life". Mathematics is (in some sense) a model of this real world. We make up definitions of abstract objects that mimic the behaviour of the real world, and then we reason about these objects, hoping that our reasoning will tell us something interesting about the real objects they represent. So, when the mathematics gives us results that are counter-intuitive, my feeling is that the mathematical definitions might not be suitable models of reality.
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:43











  • My other answer is the one you anticipated in your last paragraph :-)
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:45






  • 1




    Perhaps : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burali-Forti_paradox
    – DanielV
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:59












up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1






1





It strikes me that the Banach-Tarski paradox (rearranging ball partitions)
is not dispelled even when you understand the underlying mathematics.
Perhaps Parrondo's paradox in Game Theory (sawtooth losing → winning) is analogous, in that it retains for me a sense of magic
even after studying simulations.
Perhaps Simpson's paradox in statistics (two plusses's→minus) is borderline, in that, even though it is easy to fall into it, it is
also easy to see why one's intuition was incorrect.




Q.Which mathematical "paradoxes" remain paradoxical even when you understand them
thoroughly?




I would judge Braess' paradox
(adding a shortcut to a road network impedes traffic) as the type of paradox that
is dispelled upon understanding it. Whereas the Banach-Tarski paradox remains
(for me) paradoxical even though I think I understand the mathematics
behind it.



A defensible answer to Q is: No paradoxes remain paradoxical when thoroughly understood—that's what it means to "understand"!







share|cite|improve this question














It strikes me that the Banach-Tarski paradox (rearranging ball partitions)
is not dispelled even when you understand the underlying mathematics.
Perhaps Parrondo's paradox in Game Theory (sawtooth losing → winning) is analogous, in that it retains for me a sense of magic
even after studying simulations.
Perhaps Simpson's paradox in statistics (two plusses's→minus) is borderline, in that, even though it is easy to fall into it, it is
also easy to see why one's intuition was incorrect.




Q.Which mathematical "paradoxes" remain paradoxical even when you understand them
thoroughly?




I would judge Braess' paradox
(adding a shortcut to a road network impedes traffic) as the type of paradox that
is dispelled upon understanding it. Whereas the Banach-Tarski paradox remains
(for me) paradoxical even though I think I understand the mathematics
behind it.



A defensible answer to Q is: No paradoxes remain paradoxical when thoroughly understood—that's what it means to "understand"!









share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 16 '16 at 2:37

























asked Jan 16 '16 at 2:17









Joseph O'Rourke

17.2k248104




17.2k248104







  • 1




    Maybe it's just me but I find something very simple that everyone understands paradoxical: voting with millions of voters...why does it matter if I vote? This is really the Sorites paradox in disguise, but the pile of sand version doesn't do it for me.
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:39






  • 1




    I think "paradox" here means "counter to the understanding we derive from the world around us in everyday life". Mathematics is (in some sense) a model of this real world. We make up definitions of abstract objects that mimic the behaviour of the real world, and then we reason about these objects, hoping that our reasoning will tell us something interesting about the real objects they represent. So, when the mathematics gives us results that are counter-intuitive, my feeling is that the mathematical definitions might not be suitable models of reality.
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:43











  • My other answer is the one you anticipated in your last paragraph :-)
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:45






  • 1




    Perhaps : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burali-Forti_paradox
    – DanielV
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:59












  • 1




    Maybe it's just me but I find something very simple that everyone understands paradoxical: voting with millions of voters...why does it matter if I vote? This is really the Sorites paradox in disguise, but the pile of sand version doesn't do it for me.
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:39






  • 1




    I think "paradox" here means "counter to the understanding we derive from the world around us in everyday life". Mathematics is (in some sense) a model of this real world. We make up definitions of abstract objects that mimic the behaviour of the real world, and then we reason about these objects, hoping that our reasoning will tell us something interesting about the real objects they represent. So, when the mathematics gives us results that are counter-intuitive, my feeling is that the mathematical definitions might not be suitable models of reality.
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:43











  • My other answer is the one you anticipated in your last paragraph :-)
    – bubba
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:45






  • 1




    Perhaps : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burali-Forti_paradox
    – DanielV
    Jan 16 '16 at 2:59







1




1




Maybe it's just me but I find something very simple that everyone understands paradoxical: voting with millions of voters...why does it matter if I vote? This is really the Sorites paradox in disguise, but the pile of sand version doesn't do it for me.
– Matt Samuel
Jan 16 '16 at 2:39




Maybe it's just me but I find something very simple that everyone understands paradoxical: voting with millions of voters...why does it matter if I vote? This is really the Sorites paradox in disguise, but the pile of sand version doesn't do it for me.
– Matt Samuel
Jan 16 '16 at 2:39




1




1




I think "paradox" here means "counter to the understanding we derive from the world around us in everyday life". Mathematics is (in some sense) a model of this real world. We make up definitions of abstract objects that mimic the behaviour of the real world, and then we reason about these objects, hoping that our reasoning will tell us something interesting about the real objects they represent. So, when the mathematics gives us results that are counter-intuitive, my feeling is that the mathematical definitions might not be suitable models of reality.
– bubba
Jan 16 '16 at 2:43





I think "paradox" here means "counter to the understanding we derive from the world around us in everyday life". Mathematics is (in some sense) a model of this real world. We make up definitions of abstract objects that mimic the behaviour of the real world, and then we reason about these objects, hoping that our reasoning will tell us something interesting about the real objects they represent. So, when the mathematics gives us results that are counter-intuitive, my feeling is that the mathematical definitions might not be suitable models of reality.
– bubba
Jan 16 '16 at 2:43













My other answer is the one you anticipated in your last paragraph :-)
– bubba
Jan 16 '16 at 2:45




My other answer is the one you anticipated in your last paragraph :-)
– bubba
Jan 16 '16 at 2:45




1




1




Perhaps : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burali-Forti_paradox
– DanielV
Jan 16 '16 at 2:59




Perhaps : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burali-Forti_paradox
– DanielV
Jan 16 '16 at 2:59










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










One of my favorites: The real numbers are a vector space over the rationals. Therefore there is a basis for this vector space (a consequence of the Axiom of Choice), and such one basis must lie in the unit interval, since you can replace any basis element by a multiple between 0 and 1.



A lot of paradoxes come from the Axiom of Choice, which nevertheless strikes me as intuitive and a lot of paradoxes come from our failure to understand that infinite sets don't have to correspond to our expectations for finite sets.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
    – Joseph O'Rourke
    Jan 16 '16 at 15:24










  • @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
    – Asaf Karagila♦
    Jan 20 '16 at 21:47










  • But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
    – Asaf Karagila♦
    Jan 20 '16 at 21:50

















up vote
1
down vote













From the title it is clear that the issue is psychological.
Purely personal example: Though this is not a paradox, existence of countable dense and sigma additivity leads to the notion that there exist an open dense set in the real line of arbitrarily small measure.



Another thing is we accept the standard three axioms a metric has to satisfy. This leads to $p$-adic metric spaces where two open sets can intersect only one is contained in another.



I am reminded of the saying, " A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still".



Let me quote more.
Einstein about statistical/quantum mechanics,"God does not play dice".



Gordon on Hilbert's finiteness theorem on invariants
"This is not mathematics, this is theology".



I think Kronecker also had problems with Cantor's theory of infinity.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    The axiom of choice states that for every set of nonempty sets, there exists a function that assigns to each of those sets one element of that set. I find it very weird that the axiom of choice might not be true. It's not weird that it is not provable in ZF. Rather since it's not provable in ZF, I'm not sure that it's true and I feel like if it turns out not to be true, then that's very wierd.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      One of my favorites: The real numbers are a vector space over the rationals. Therefore there is a basis for this vector space (a consequence of the Axiom of Choice), and such one basis must lie in the unit interval, since you can replace any basis element by a multiple between 0 and 1.



      A lot of paradoxes come from the Axiom of Choice, which nevertheless strikes me as intuitive and a lot of paradoxes come from our failure to understand that infinite sets don't have to correspond to our expectations for finite sets.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
        – Joseph O'Rourke
        Jan 16 '16 at 15:24










      • @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:47










      • But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:50














      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      One of my favorites: The real numbers are a vector space over the rationals. Therefore there is a basis for this vector space (a consequence of the Axiom of Choice), and such one basis must lie in the unit interval, since you can replace any basis element by a multiple between 0 and 1.



      A lot of paradoxes come from the Axiom of Choice, which nevertheless strikes me as intuitive and a lot of paradoxes come from our failure to understand that infinite sets don't have to correspond to our expectations for finite sets.






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
        – Joseph O'Rourke
        Jan 16 '16 at 15:24










      • @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:47










      • But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:50












      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted






      One of my favorites: The real numbers are a vector space over the rationals. Therefore there is a basis for this vector space (a consequence of the Axiom of Choice), and such one basis must lie in the unit interval, since you can replace any basis element by a multiple between 0 and 1.



      A lot of paradoxes come from the Axiom of Choice, which nevertheless strikes me as intuitive and a lot of paradoxes come from our failure to understand that infinite sets don't have to correspond to our expectations for finite sets.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      One of my favorites: The real numbers are a vector space over the rationals. Therefore there is a basis for this vector space (a consequence of the Axiom of Choice), and such one basis must lie in the unit interval, since you can replace any basis element by a multiple between 0 and 1.



      A lot of paradoxes come from the Axiom of Choice, which nevertheless strikes me as intuitive and a lot of paradoxes come from our failure to understand that infinite sets don't have to correspond to our expectations for finite sets.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Jan 16 '16 at 3:10









      Syd Henderson

      1,55868




      1,55868











      • Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
        – Joseph O'Rourke
        Jan 16 '16 at 15:24










      • @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:47










      • But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:50
















      • Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
        – Joseph O'Rourke
        Jan 16 '16 at 15:24










      • @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:47










      • But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
        – Asaf Karagila♦
        Jan 20 '16 at 21:50















      Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
      – Joseph O'Rourke
      Jan 16 '16 at 15:24




      Nice example! And that basis must be uncountable, and presumably cannot be described---We just know it exists.
      – Joseph O'Rourke
      Jan 16 '16 at 15:24












      @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
      – Asaf Karagila♦
      Jan 20 '16 at 21:47




      @Joseph: Unless you add more axioms to ZFC, it is consistent that there is no "reasonable" description at all. And unless you add the axiom of choice, it is possible that there is no such basis to begin with.
      – Asaf Karagila♦
      Jan 20 '16 at 21:47












      But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
      – Asaf Karagila♦
      Jan 20 '16 at 21:50




      But in all seriousness, how is this paradoxical?
      – Asaf Karagila♦
      Jan 20 '16 at 21:50










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      From the title it is clear that the issue is psychological.
      Purely personal example: Though this is not a paradox, existence of countable dense and sigma additivity leads to the notion that there exist an open dense set in the real line of arbitrarily small measure.



      Another thing is we accept the standard three axioms a metric has to satisfy. This leads to $p$-adic metric spaces where two open sets can intersect only one is contained in another.



      I am reminded of the saying, " A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still".



      Let me quote more.
      Einstein about statistical/quantum mechanics,"God does not play dice".



      Gordon on Hilbert's finiteness theorem on invariants
      "This is not mathematics, this is theology".



      I think Kronecker also had problems with Cantor's theory of infinity.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        From the title it is clear that the issue is psychological.
        Purely personal example: Though this is not a paradox, existence of countable dense and sigma additivity leads to the notion that there exist an open dense set in the real line of arbitrarily small measure.



        Another thing is we accept the standard three axioms a metric has to satisfy. This leads to $p$-adic metric spaces where two open sets can intersect only one is contained in another.



        I am reminded of the saying, " A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still".



        Let me quote more.
        Einstein about statistical/quantum mechanics,"God does not play dice".



        Gordon on Hilbert's finiteness theorem on invariants
        "This is not mathematics, this is theology".



        I think Kronecker also had problems with Cantor's theory of infinity.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          From the title it is clear that the issue is psychological.
          Purely personal example: Though this is not a paradox, existence of countable dense and sigma additivity leads to the notion that there exist an open dense set in the real line of arbitrarily small measure.



          Another thing is we accept the standard three axioms a metric has to satisfy. This leads to $p$-adic metric spaces where two open sets can intersect only one is contained in another.



          I am reminded of the saying, " A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still".



          Let me quote more.
          Einstein about statistical/quantum mechanics,"God does not play dice".



          Gordon on Hilbert's finiteness theorem on invariants
          "This is not mathematics, this is theology".



          I think Kronecker also had problems with Cantor's theory of infinity.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          From the title it is clear that the issue is psychological.
          Purely personal example: Though this is not a paradox, existence of countable dense and sigma additivity leads to the notion that there exist an open dense set in the real line of arbitrarily small measure.



          Another thing is we accept the standard three axioms a metric has to satisfy. This leads to $p$-adic metric spaces where two open sets can intersect only one is contained in another.



          I am reminded of the saying, " A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still".



          Let me quote more.
          Einstein about statistical/quantum mechanics,"God does not play dice".



          Gordon on Hilbert's finiteness theorem on invariants
          "This is not mathematics, this is theology".



          I think Kronecker also had problems with Cantor's theory of infinity.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 16 '16 at 2:54









          P Vanchinathan

          14k12035




          14k12035




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              The axiom of choice states that for every set of nonempty sets, there exists a function that assigns to each of those sets one element of that set. I find it very weird that the axiom of choice might not be true. It's not weird that it is not provable in ZF. Rather since it's not provable in ZF, I'm not sure that it's true and I feel like if it turns out not to be true, then that's very wierd.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                The axiom of choice states that for every set of nonempty sets, there exists a function that assigns to each of those sets one element of that set. I find it very weird that the axiom of choice might not be true. It's not weird that it is not provable in ZF. Rather since it's not provable in ZF, I'm not sure that it's true and I feel like if it turns out not to be true, then that's very wierd.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  The axiom of choice states that for every set of nonempty sets, there exists a function that assigns to each of those sets one element of that set. I find it very weird that the axiom of choice might not be true. It's not weird that it is not provable in ZF. Rather since it's not provable in ZF, I'm not sure that it's true and I feel like if it turns out not to be true, then that's very wierd.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  The axiom of choice states that for every set of nonempty sets, there exists a function that assigns to each of those sets one element of that set. I find it very weird that the axiom of choice might not be true. It's not weird that it is not provable in ZF. Rather since it's not provable in ZF, I'm not sure that it's true and I feel like if it turns out not to be true, then that's very wierd.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 18 at 1:03









                  Timothy

                  262211




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