Is there an orthonormal basis for $L^2([0,1])$ consisting of only even-degree polynomials?
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Problem:
Does $L^2([0,1])$ equipped with the inner product $$langle f,g rangle = int_0^1 overlinef(x)g(x) , dx$$ have an orthonormal basis of the form $leftf_n(x):=sumlimits_k=0^n a_k x^2k mid n ge 0right$?
Attempt:
I worked this out by hand and then checked with Mathematica. I think that no such basis exists. However, in my proof I showed that the orthonormal system need not even be complete.
Did I make a mistake somewhere?
Here is the Mathematica code:
u[n_, x_] := Sum[(a[k]+I*b[k])*x^(2*k), k,0,n]
f[m_, n_] := Integrate[ComplexExpand[Conjugate[u[m,x]]*u[n,x]], x,0,1]
Solve[f[0,0]==1, f[0,1]==0, f[1,0]==0, f[1,1]==1, a[0],b[0],a[1],b[1]]
In the code above I expanded each coefficient $a_k$ into its real and imaginary parts, and then solved the set of equations
$$langle f_0,f_0 rangle = 1, langle f_0,f_1 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_0 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_1 rangle = 1$$
but got an empty solution set.
proof-verification hilbert-spaces orthonormal
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Problem:
Does $L^2([0,1])$ equipped with the inner product $$langle f,g rangle = int_0^1 overlinef(x)g(x) , dx$$ have an orthonormal basis of the form $leftf_n(x):=sumlimits_k=0^n a_k x^2k mid n ge 0right$?
Attempt:
I worked this out by hand and then checked with Mathematica. I think that no such basis exists. However, in my proof I showed that the orthonormal system need not even be complete.
Did I make a mistake somewhere?
Here is the Mathematica code:
u[n_, x_] := Sum[(a[k]+I*b[k])*x^(2*k), k,0,n]
f[m_, n_] := Integrate[ComplexExpand[Conjugate[u[m,x]]*u[n,x]], x,0,1]
Solve[f[0,0]==1, f[0,1]==0, f[1,0]==0, f[1,1]==1, a[0],b[0],a[1],b[1]]
In the code above I expanded each coefficient $a_k$ into its real and imaginary parts, and then solved the set of equations
$$langle f_0,f_0 rangle = 1, langle f_0,f_1 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_0 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_1 rangle = 1$$
but got an empty solution set.
proof-verification hilbert-spaces orthonormal
You really don't need to worry about imaginary coefficients. If there's an orthonormal basis of the type you seek then there'll be one with real coefficients.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:13
Why are imaginary coefficients irrelevant here?
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:22
1
Think Gram-Schmidt.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Problem:
Does $L^2([0,1])$ equipped with the inner product $$langle f,g rangle = int_0^1 overlinef(x)g(x) , dx$$ have an orthonormal basis of the form $leftf_n(x):=sumlimits_k=0^n a_k x^2k mid n ge 0right$?
Attempt:
I worked this out by hand and then checked with Mathematica. I think that no such basis exists. However, in my proof I showed that the orthonormal system need not even be complete.
Did I make a mistake somewhere?
Here is the Mathematica code:
u[n_, x_] := Sum[(a[k]+I*b[k])*x^(2*k), k,0,n]
f[m_, n_] := Integrate[ComplexExpand[Conjugate[u[m,x]]*u[n,x]], x,0,1]
Solve[f[0,0]==1, f[0,1]==0, f[1,0]==0, f[1,1]==1, a[0],b[0],a[1],b[1]]
In the code above I expanded each coefficient $a_k$ into its real and imaginary parts, and then solved the set of equations
$$langle f_0,f_0 rangle = 1, langle f_0,f_1 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_0 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_1 rangle = 1$$
but got an empty solution set.
proof-verification hilbert-spaces orthonormal
Problem:
Does $L^2([0,1])$ equipped with the inner product $$langle f,g rangle = int_0^1 overlinef(x)g(x) , dx$$ have an orthonormal basis of the form $leftf_n(x):=sumlimits_k=0^n a_k x^2k mid n ge 0right$?
Attempt:
I worked this out by hand and then checked with Mathematica. I think that no such basis exists. However, in my proof I showed that the orthonormal system need not even be complete.
Did I make a mistake somewhere?
Here is the Mathematica code:
u[n_, x_] := Sum[(a[k]+I*b[k])*x^(2*k), k,0,n]
f[m_, n_] := Integrate[ComplexExpand[Conjugate[u[m,x]]*u[n,x]], x,0,1]
Solve[f[0,0]==1, f[0,1]==0, f[1,0]==0, f[1,1]==1, a[0],b[0],a[1],b[1]]
In the code above I expanded each coefficient $a_k$ into its real and imaginary parts, and then solved the set of equations
$$langle f_0,f_0 rangle = 1, langle f_0,f_1 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_0 rangle = 0, langle f_1,f_1 rangle = 1$$
but got an empty solution set.
proof-verification hilbert-spaces orthonormal
edited Aug 18 at 3:36
Michael Hardy
205k23187463
205k23187463
asked Aug 18 at 1:38
Mathemagica
88922765
88922765
You really don't need to worry about imaginary coefficients. If there's an orthonormal basis of the type you seek then there'll be one with real coefficients.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:13
Why are imaginary coefficients irrelevant here?
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:22
1
Think Gram-Schmidt.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:23
add a comment |Â
You really don't need to worry about imaginary coefficients. If there's an orthonormal basis of the type you seek then there'll be one with real coefficients.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:13
Why are imaginary coefficients irrelevant here?
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:22
1
Think Gram-Schmidt.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:23
You really don't need to worry about imaginary coefficients. If there's an orthonormal basis of the type you seek then there'll be one with real coefficients.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:13
You really don't need to worry about imaginary coefficients. If there's an orthonormal basis of the type you seek then there'll be one with real coefficients.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:13
Why are imaginary coefficients irrelevant here?
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:22
Why are imaginary coefficients irrelevant here?
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:22
1
1
Think Gram-Schmidt.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:23
Think Gram-Schmidt.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:23
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The functions $1$, $x^2$, $x^4,ldots,x^2n,ldots$ are linearly independent, so the Gram-Schmidt process does yield an orthonormal sequence with
$f_n(x)=sum_i=0^n a_n,ix^2i$, and the $a_n.i$ real. Is this system complete?
The system is complete iff the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in
$L^2[0,1]$. By the Stone-Weierstrass theorem, continuous functions on $[0,1]$
can be uniformly approximated by polynomials in $x^2$, and so also approximated
in $L^2[0,1]$ by polynomials in $x^2$. As the continuous functions
are dense in $L^2[0,1]$ then so are the polynomials in $x^2$. The orthonormal
sequence is complete.
1
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
2
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
2
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The functions $1$, $x^2$, $x^4,ldots,x^2n,ldots$ are linearly independent, so the Gram-Schmidt process does yield an orthonormal sequence with
$f_n(x)=sum_i=0^n a_n,ix^2i$, and the $a_n.i$ real. Is this system complete?
The system is complete iff the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in
$L^2[0,1]$. By the Stone-Weierstrass theorem, continuous functions on $[0,1]$
can be uniformly approximated by polynomials in $x^2$, and so also approximated
in $L^2[0,1]$ by polynomials in $x^2$. As the continuous functions
are dense in $L^2[0,1]$ then so are the polynomials in $x^2$. The orthonormal
sequence is complete.
1
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
2
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
2
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The functions $1$, $x^2$, $x^4,ldots,x^2n,ldots$ are linearly independent, so the Gram-Schmidt process does yield an orthonormal sequence with
$f_n(x)=sum_i=0^n a_n,ix^2i$, and the $a_n.i$ real. Is this system complete?
The system is complete iff the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in
$L^2[0,1]$. By the Stone-Weierstrass theorem, continuous functions on $[0,1]$
can be uniformly approximated by polynomials in $x^2$, and so also approximated
in $L^2[0,1]$ by polynomials in $x^2$. As the continuous functions
are dense in $L^2[0,1]$ then so are the polynomials in $x^2$. The orthonormal
sequence is complete.
1
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
2
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
2
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The functions $1$, $x^2$, $x^4,ldots,x^2n,ldots$ are linearly independent, so the Gram-Schmidt process does yield an orthonormal sequence with
$f_n(x)=sum_i=0^n a_n,ix^2i$, and the $a_n.i$ real. Is this system complete?
The system is complete iff the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in
$L^2[0,1]$. By the Stone-Weierstrass theorem, continuous functions on $[0,1]$
can be uniformly approximated by polynomials in $x^2$, and so also approximated
in $L^2[0,1]$ by polynomials in $x^2$. As the continuous functions
are dense in $L^2[0,1]$ then so are the polynomials in $x^2$. The orthonormal
sequence is complete.
The functions $1$, $x^2$, $x^4,ldots,x^2n,ldots$ are linearly independent, so the Gram-Schmidt process does yield an orthonormal sequence with
$f_n(x)=sum_i=0^n a_n,ix^2i$, and the $a_n.i$ real. Is this system complete?
The system is complete iff the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in
$L^2[0,1]$. By the Stone-Weierstrass theorem, continuous functions on $[0,1]$
can be uniformly approximated by polynomials in $x^2$, and so also approximated
in $L^2[0,1]$ by polynomials in $x^2$. As the continuous functions
are dense in $L^2[0,1]$ then so are the polynomials in $x^2$. The orthonormal
sequence is complete.
edited Aug 18 at 2:29
answered Aug 18 at 2:16
Lord Shark the Unknown
87.5k953114
87.5k953114
1
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
2
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
2
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
add a comment |Â
1
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
2
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
2
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
1
1
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
We can also conclude that the polynomials in $x^2$ are dense in $L^2([0,1])$ by the MüntzâÂÂSzász theorem.
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:37
2
2
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
@Mathemagica You can ... if you like using a sledgehammer $ddotsmile$.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:38
2
2
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
We can uniformly approximate $g(x)=f(sqrt x)$ by a polynomial $p(x)$, for continuous$ f, $ whereupon $p(x^2)$ approximates $f(x).$
â DanielWainfleet
Aug 18 at 5:06
add a comment |Â
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You really don't need to worry about imaginary coefficients. If there's an orthonormal basis of the type you seek then there'll be one with real coefficients.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:13
Why are imaginary coefficients irrelevant here?
â Mathemagica
Aug 18 at 2:22
1
Think Gram-Schmidt.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:23