Prove that $g(x) = x over (1- $ is a bijection.
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.
Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.
We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.
First, we prove $g$ is injective.
By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.
Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.
We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$
$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.
For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$
But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?
Thanks in advance!
functions discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.
Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.
We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.
First, we prove $g$ is injective.
By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.
Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.
We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$
$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.
For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$
But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?
Thanks in advance!
functions discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
1
The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.
Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.
We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.
First, we prove $g$ is injective.
By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.
Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.
We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$
$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.
For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$
But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?
Thanks in advance!
functions discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.
Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.
We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.
First, we prove $g$ is injective.
By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.
Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.
We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$
$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.
For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$
But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?
Thanks in advance!
functions discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
edited Aug 18 at 4:48
copper.hat
123k557156
123k557156
asked Aug 18 at 2:08
alwaysiamcaesar
304
304
1
The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18
add a comment |Â
1
The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18
1
1
The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18
The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
$frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can compute an explicit inverse:
Let $y = x over 1-$.
Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.
If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.
If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.
If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.
Hence we see that $y=x = y$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
you can do it like this
you have
$$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$
there are two cases
case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$
case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$
it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0
which is not true
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
$frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
$frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
$frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.
$frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.
answered Aug 18 at 2:18
Henning Makholm
229k16294525
229k16294525
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can compute an explicit inverse:
Let $y = x over 1-$.
Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.
If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.
If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.
If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.
Hence we see that $y=x = y$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can compute an explicit inverse:
Let $y = x over 1-$.
Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.
If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.
If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.
If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.
Hence we see that $y=x = y$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
One can compute an explicit inverse:
Let $y = x over 1-$.
Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.
If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.
If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.
If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.
Hence we see that $y=x = y$.
One can compute an explicit inverse:
Let $y = x over 1-$.
Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.
If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.
If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.
If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.
Hence we see that $y=x = y$.
answered Aug 18 at 4:15
copper.hat
123k557156
123k557156
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
you can do it like this
you have
$$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$
there are two cases
case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$
case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$
it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0
which is not true
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
you can do it like this
you have
$$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$
there are two cases
case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$
case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$
it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0
which is not true
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
you can do it like this
you have
$$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$
there are two cases
case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$
case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$
it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0
which is not true
you can do it like this
you have
$$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$
there are two cases
case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$
case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$
it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0
which is not true
edited Aug 19 at 2:44
answered Aug 18 at 2:13
James
2,186619
2,186619
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
add a comment |Â
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
It is an injective function!
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:34
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
sorry I meant bijection
â James
Aug 19 at 2:42
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
It is a bijection.
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:43
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
â James
Aug 19 at 2:44
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
Look at my answer?
â copper.hat
Aug 19 at 2:51
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2886346%2fprove-that-gx-x-over-1-x-is-a-bijection%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
1
The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
â Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18