Prove that $g(x) = x over (1- $ is a bijection.

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I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.



Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.



We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.



First, we prove $g$ is injective.



By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.



Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.



We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$



$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.



For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$



But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?



Thanks in advance!







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  • 1




    The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 18 at 2:18















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.



Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.



We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.



First, we prove $g$ is injective.



By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.



Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.



We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$



$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.



For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$



But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?



Thanks in advance!







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 18 at 2:18













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.



Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.



We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.



First, we prove $g$ is injective.



By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.



Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.



We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$



$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.



For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$



But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?



Thanks in advance!







share|cite|improve this question














I'm struggling with the following homework assignment.



Let $X = x in mathbbR: -1 < x < 1$. We define $g: X rightarrow mathbbR$ by $g(x) = fracxx$.



We must prove that $g$ is a bijection.



First, we prove $g$ is injective.



By definition of injection, $g$ is injective iff whenever $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$.



Let $x_1,x_2 in X$ and $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$. Want to show $x_1 = x_2$.



We have $fracx_1 = fracx_2x_2 Leftrightarrow x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$



$Leftrightarrow x_1-x_1|x_2|=x_2-|x_1|x_2$.



For cases $x_1,x_2 > 0$ and $x_1,x_2 < 0$ we get $x_1 = x_2$



But for the remaining two cases, how should I proceed?



Thanks in advance!









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 18 at 4:48









copper.hat

123k557156




123k557156










asked Aug 18 at 2:08









alwaysiamcaesar

304




304







  • 1




    The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 18 at 2:18













  • 1




    The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 18 at 2:18








1




1




The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18





The best way to prove a function is a bijection is to find its inverse function.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 18 at 2:18











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










$frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    One can compute an explicit inverse:



    Let $y = x over 1-$.



    Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.



    If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.



    If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.



    If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.



    Hence we see that $y=x = y$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      you can do it like this
      you have



      $$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$



      there are two cases



      case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$



      case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
      now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$



      it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0



      which is not true






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • It is an injective function!
        – copper.hat
        Aug 19 at 2:34










      • sorry I meant bijection
        – James
        Aug 19 at 2:42










      • It is a bijection.
        – copper.hat
        Aug 19 at 2:43










      • but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
        – James
        Aug 19 at 2:44










      • Look at my answer?
        – copper.hat
        Aug 19 at 2:51










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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      $frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted










        $frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          $frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $frac xx$ always has the same sign as $x$ when $xin X$ (since the denominator is positive), so if $x_1$ and $x_2$ have different signs, then $g(x_1)$ and $g(x_2)$ also have different signs -- in particular they can't be equal.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 18 at 2:18









          Henning Makholm

          229k16294525




          229k16294525




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              One can compute an explicit inverse:



              Let $y = x over 1-$.



              Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.



              If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.



              If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.



              If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.



              Hence we see that $y=x = y$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                One can compute an explicit inverse:



                Let $y = x over 1-$.



                Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.



                If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.



                If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.



                If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.



                Hence we see that $y=x = y$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  One can compute an explicit inverse:



                  Let $y = x over 1-$.



                  Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.



                  If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.



                  If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.



                  If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.



                  Hence we see that $y=x = y$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  One can compute an explicit inverse:



                  Let $y = x over 1-$.



                  Note that $operatornamesgn y = operatornamesgn y$.



                  If $y = 0$ then $x=0$.



                  If $y>0$, then $(1-x)y = x$ or $x(1+y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1+y$.



                  If $y<0$, then $(1+x)y = x$ or $x(1-y) = y$ which gives $x = y over 1-y$.



                  Hence we see that $y=x = y$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 18 at 4:15









                  copper.hat

                  123k557156




                  123k557156




















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      you can do it like this
                      you have



                      $$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$



                      there are two cases



                      case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$



                      case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
                      now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$



                      it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0



                      which is not true






                      share|cite|improve this answer






















                      • It is an injective function!
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:34










                      • sorry I meant bijection
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:42










                      • It is a bijection.
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:43










                      • but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:44










                      • Look at my answer?
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:51














                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      you can do it like this
                      you have



                      $$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$



                      there are two cases



                      case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$



                      case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
                      now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$



                      it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0



                      which is not true






                      share|cite|improve this answer






















                      • It is an injective function!
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:34










                      • sorry I meant bijection
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:42










                      • It is a bijection.
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:43










                      • but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:44










                      • Look at my answer?
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:51












                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote









                      you can do it like this
                      you have



                      $$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$



                      there are two cases



                      case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$



                      case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
                      now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$



                      it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0



                      which is not true






                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      you can do it like this
                      you have



                      $$ x_1(1-|x_2|) = x_2(1-|x_1|)$$



                      there are two cases



                      case 1) $x_1=x_2$ and $1-|x_2|=1-|x_1|$ gives $x_1=x_2$



                      case 2) $x_1=1-|x_1|$ and $1-|x_2|=x_2$
                      now if $x_1 <0$ and $x_2<0$



                      it gives $x_1=1+x_1$ and $1+x_2=x_2$ $to$ 1=0



                      which is not true







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Aug 19 at 2:44

























                      answered Aug 18 at 2:13









                      James

                      2,186619




                      2,186619











                      • It is an injective function!
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:34










                      • sorry I meant bijection
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:42










                      • It is a bijection.
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:43










                      • but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:44










                      • Look at my answer?
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:51
















                      • It is an injective function!
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:34










                      • sorry I meant bijection
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:42










                      • It is a bijection.
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:43










                      • but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
                        – James
                        Aug 19 at 2:44










                      • Look at my answer?
                        – copper.hat
                        Aug 19 at 2:51















                      It is an injective function!
                      – copper.hat
                      Aug 19 at 2:34




                      It is an injective function!
                      – copper.hat
                      Aug 19 at 2:34












                      sorry I meant bijection
                      – James
                      Aug 19 at 2:42




                      sorry I meant bijection
                      – James
                      Aug 19 at 2:42












                      It is a bijection.
                      – copper.hat
                      Aug 19 at 2:43




                      It is a bijection.
                      – copper.hat
                      Aug 19 at 2:43












                      but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
                      – James
                      Aug 19 at 2:44




                      but g(x_1)=g(x_2) doesn't give us x_1=x_2 then how?? can you please tell me
                      – James
                      Aug 19 at 2:44












                      Look at my answer?
                      – copper.hat
                      Aug 19 at 2:51




                      Look at my answer?
                      – copper.hat
                      Aug 19 at 2:51












                       

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