How to calculate the $K_0$ and $K_1$ groups for $A$

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Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.



Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.



I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.



I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.



Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite
    2












    Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.



    Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.



    I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.



    I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.



    Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
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      favorite
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      2





      Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.



      Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.



      I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.



      I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.



      Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.







      share|cite|improve this question














      Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.



      Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.



      I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.



      I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.



      Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 19 at 11:02









      André S.

      1,617313




      1,617313










      asked Aug 18 at 8:34









      Zelong Li

      425




      425




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $requireAMScd$
          If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
          $$
          0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
          $$
          where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.



          beginCD
          K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
          endCD
          Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes



          beginCD
          0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
          endCD



          So we have an isomorphism
          $$
          K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
          $$
          and $K_1(A) = 0$.



          Remark:
          The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 23 at 14:01


















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
          $$
          K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
          $$
          But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
          $$
          K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 7:35











          • @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
            – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
            Aug 19 at 7:51











          • I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:11











          • What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:21











          Your Answer




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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $requireAMScd$
          If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
          $$
          0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
          $$
          where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.



          beginCD
          K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
          endCD
          Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes



          beginCD
          0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
          endCD



          So we have an isomorphism
          $$
          K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
          $$
          and $K_1(A) = 0$.



          Remark:
          The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 23 at 14:01















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $requireAMScd$
          If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
          $$
          0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
          $$
          where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.



          beginCD
          K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
          endCD
          Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes



          beginCD
          0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
          endCD



          So we have an isomorphism
          $$
          K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
          $$
          and $K_1(A) = 0$.



          Remark:
          The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 23 at 14:01













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          $requireAMScd$
          If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
          $$
          0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
          $$
          where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.



          beginCD
          K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
          endCD
          Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes



          beginCD
          0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
          endCD



          So we have an isomorphism
          $$
          K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
          $$
          and $K_1(A) = 0$.



          Remark:
          The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          $requireAMScd$
          If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
          $$
          0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
          $$
          where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.



          beginCD
          K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
          endCD
          Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes



          beginCD
          0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
          @AAA @. @VVV \
          0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
          endCD



          So we have an isomorphism
          $$
          K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
          $$
          and $K_1(A) = 0$.



          Remark:
          The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 20 at 9:35

























          answered Aug 19 at 10:10









          André S.

          1,617313




          1,617313











          • Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 23 at 14:01

















          • Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 23 at 14:01
















          Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 23 at 14:01





          Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 23 at 14:01











          up vote
          1
          down vote













          One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
          $$
          K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
          $$
          But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
          $$
          K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 7:35











          • @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
            – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
            Aug 19 at 7:51











          • I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:11











          • What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:21















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
          $$
          K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
          $$
          But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
          $$
          K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 7:35











          • @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
            – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
            Aug 19 at 7:51











          • I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:11











          • What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:21













          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
          $$
          K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
          $$
          But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
          $$
          K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
          $$
          K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
          $$
          But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
          $$
          K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 19 at 7:51

























          answered Aug 19 at 4:55









          Prahlad Vaidyanathan

          25.5k12149




          25.5k12149











          • I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 7:35











          • @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
            – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
            Aug 19 at 7:51











          • I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:11











          • What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:21

















          • I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 7:35











          • @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
            – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
            Aug 19 at 7:51











          • I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:11











          • What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
            – Zelong Li
            Aug 19 at 8:21
















          I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 19 at 7:35





          I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 19 at 7:35













          @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
          – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
          Aug 19 at 7:51





          @ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
          – Prahlad Vaidyanathan
          Aug 19 at 7:51













          I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 19 at 8:11





          I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 19 at 8:11













          What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 19 at 8:21





          What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
          – Zelong Li
          Aug 19 at 8:21













           

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