How to calculate the $K_0$ and $K_1$ groups for $A$
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Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.
Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.
I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.
I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.
Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.
operator-algebras c-star-algebras k-theory
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.
Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.
I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.
I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.
Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.
operator-algebras c-star-algebras k-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.
Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.
I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.
I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.
Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.
operator-algebras c-star-algebras k-theory
Let $A=fin C([0,1],M_n)mid f(0)$ is scalar matrix $$.
Then find the $K_0(A)$ and $K_1(A)$.
I am trying to use the SES $J rightarrow A rightarrow A/J$ where $J$ can be taken as some closed ideals of $A$. Such a closed ideals may be found in a similar way due to my previously asked question here. Now $J$ contains all the continuous functions that are zero on some closed subsets of $[0,1]$, that is, finite points or the closed subintervals of $[0,1]$. Then it seems to me that $M_n(J)$ consists of those matrices with operator-entries that is actually zero in above case. These matrices have zero diagonals and therefore $K_0(J)=0$. But after that I don't know how to do apart from $K_0(A)simeq K_(A/J)$ by the half-exactness of SES.
I am also assuming that there should be a way to consider the $K$-groups by definition, for example, when calculating $K(mathbb C)$, take the difference of $[p]_0-[q]_0$, each of which is the equivalence class of matrices in $M_n(mathbb C)$. Then the generators are just those matrices with different numbers of $1$ in the diagonal, plus all zeros one; so $V(A)$= $mathbbN cup 0$. Counting the difference, we have $K_0(mathbbC)=mathbb Z$.
Could anybody show me the technique for calculating $K_1$ and $K_0$? Are there any standard techniques to calculate $K$-groups in general? Thanks.
operator-algebras c-star-algebras k-theory
edited Aug 19 at 11:02
André S.
1,617313
1,617313
asked Aug 18 at 8:34
Zelong Li
425
425
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add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$requireAMScd$
If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
$$
0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
$$
where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.
beginCD
K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
endCD
Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes
beginCD
0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
endCD
So we have an isomorphism
$$
K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
$$
and $K_1(A) = 0$.
Remark:
The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
$$
K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
$$
But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
$$
K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
$$
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$requireAMScd$
If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
$$
0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
$$
where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.
beginCD
K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
endCD
Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes
beginCD
0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
endCD
So we have an isomorphism
$$
K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
$$
and $K_1(A) = 0$.
Remark:
The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$requireAMScd$
If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
$$
0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
$$
where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.
beginCD
K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
endCD
Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes
beginCD
0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
endCD
So we have an isomorphism
$$
K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
$$
and $K_1(A) = 0$.
Remark:
The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$requireAMScd$
If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
$$
0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
$$
where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.
beginCD
K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
endCD
Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes
beginCD
0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
endCD
So we have an isomorphism
$$
K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
$$
and $K_1(A) = 0$.
Remark:
The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.
$requireAMScd$
If you want to use six-term exact sequence, one can consider the followings short exact sequence:
$$
0 to CM_n overset imath to A overset mathrm ev to M_n to 0,
$$
where $CM_n$ is the cone over $M_n$, $imath$ the inclusion and $mathrmev$ the evaluation map at $0$.
beginCD
K_0(CM_n) @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
K_1(M_n) @<< < K_1(A) @<< < K_1(CM_n)
endCD
Since the cone over any algebra is contractible, and $K_1(M_n)$ is trivial, this becomes
beginCD
0 @>> > K_0(A) @>> > K_0(M_n)\
@AAA @. @VVV \
0 @<< < K_1(A) @<< < 0
endCD
So we have an isomorphism
$$
K_0(mathrmev) colon K_0(A) to K_0(M_n) cong mathbb Z
$$
and $K_1(A) = 0$.
Remark:
The same proof works if you look at functions $f colon [0,1] to M_n$ such that $f(0)$ is diagonal.
edited Aug 20 at 9:35
answered Aug 19 at 10:10
André S.
1,617313
1,617313
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
add a comment |Â
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
Thanks! There are actually some other related questions. I have learned your way to calculate about the case when $f(0)=f(1)$ is scalar. This may lead to the use of suspension of matrix algebra, right? What does the evaluation map happen to be if both $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ are scalar matrices(but they may be not equal), as well as diagonal?
â Zelong Li
Aug 23 at 14:01
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
$$
K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
$$
But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
$$
K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
$$
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
$$
K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
$$
But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
$$
K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
$$
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
$$
K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
$$
But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
$$
K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
$$
One can describe the algebra $A$ as the unitization of $M_n(B)$ where $B = C_0[0,1)$. Hence,
$$
K_0(A) cong K_0(M_n(B))oplus K_0(mathbbC)
$$
But $K_0(M_n(B)) cong K_0(B)$ by the stability of $K_0$, and $K_0(B) = 0$ since the identity map on $B$ is homotopic to the zero map. Thus,
$$
K_0(A)cong mathbbZ
$$
edited Aug 19 at 7:51
answered Aug 19 at 4:55
Prahlad Vaidyanathan
25.5k12149
25.5k12149
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
add a comment |Â
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
I suppose you've got $K_0(A) simeq K_0(M_n(B)) oplus K_0(mathbbC)$, haven't you? Would you also specify how that $K_0(B)=0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 7:35
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
@ZelongLi: Thanks. Fixed. I have mentioned how K_0(B) = 0 in the answer.
â Prahlad Vaidyanathan
Aug 19 at 7:51
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
I see that homotopy equivalence implies M-vN equivalence for $n times n$ matrices. Therefore $K_0$ comes to zero. But how do you derive $Id_B:C_0([0,1)) rightarrow C_0([0,1)) sim_h 0$?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:11
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
What does $f(0)$ is scalar matrix connect to the answer here?
â Zelong Li
Aug 19 at 8:21
add a comment |Â
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