Are the Hermite-Gauss functions linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$?

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The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?
functional-analysis lp-spaces
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The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?
functional-analysis lp-spaces
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up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
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The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?
functional-analysis lp-spaces
The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?
functional-analysis lp-spaces
asked Jul 19 '15 at 18:34
Cameron Williams
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The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
$$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
An orthonormal base is given by:
$$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
$$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.
For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.
Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
$$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
we have that:
$$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:
$hspace0.5in$
This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".
1
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
1
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
1
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
1
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
1
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
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The ordinary heat equation is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
$$
|e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
$$
That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.
The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
$$
Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
$$
with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
$$
T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
$$
So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
$$
K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
$$
which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
$$
K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
$$
So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
$$
f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
$$
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
1
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
1
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
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Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write$L^1(mathbbR)$and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
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3 Answers
3
active
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
$$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
An orthonormal base is given by:
$$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
$$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.
For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.
Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
$$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
we have that:
$$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:
$hspace0.5in$
This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".
1
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
1
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
1
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
1
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
1
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
 |Â
show 4 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
$$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
An orthonormal base is given by:
$$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
$$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.
For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.
Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
$$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
we have that:
$$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:
$hspace0.5in$
This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".
1
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
1
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
1
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
1
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
1
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
 |Â
show 4 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
$$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
An orthonormal base is given by:
$$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
$$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.
For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.
Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
$$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
we have that:
$$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:
$hspace0.5in$
This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".
The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
$$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
An orthonormal base is given by:
$$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
$$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.
For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.
Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
$$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
we have that:
$$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:
$hspace0.5in$
This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".
edited Jul 19 '15 at 23:25
answered Jul 19 '15 at 21:30
Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
272k32267632
272k32267632
1
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
1
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
1
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
1
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
1
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
 |Â
show 4 more comments
1
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
1
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
1
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
1
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
1
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
1
1
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 21:46
1
1
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:51
1
1
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
@CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 22:56
1
1
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
@CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
â Jack D'Aurizioâ¦
Jul 19 '15 at 23:09
1
1
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
@JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
â Strants
Aug 17 at 21:59
 |Â
show 4 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
The ordinary heat equation is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
$$
|e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
$$
That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.
The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
$$
Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
$$
with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
$$
T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
$$
So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
$$
K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
$$
which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
$$
K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
$$
So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
$$
f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
$$
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
1
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
1
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
The ordinary heat equation is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
$$
|e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
$$
That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.
The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
$$
Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
$$
with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
$$
T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
$$
So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
$$
K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
$$
which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
$$
K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
$$
So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
$$
f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
$$
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
1
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
1
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The ordinary heat equation is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
$$
|e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
$$
That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.
The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
$$
Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
$$
with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
$$
T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
$$
So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
$$
K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
$$
which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
$$
K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
$$
So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
$$
f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
$$
The ordinary heat equation is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
$$
|e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
$$
That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.
The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
$$
Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
$$
with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
$$
fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
F(0,x)=f(x).
$$
This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
$$
T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
$$
So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
$$
K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
$$
which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
$$
K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
$$
So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
$$
f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
$$
edited Jul 21 '15 at 11:03
answered Jul 19 '15 at 21:39
DisintegratingByParts
56k42373
56k42373
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
1
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
1
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
 |Â
show 1 more comment
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
1
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
1
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:30
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
@CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:37
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 22:38
1
1
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
@CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
â DisintegratingByParts
Jul 19 '15 at 22:50
1
1
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
â Cameron Williams
Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write$L^1(mathbbR)$and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write$L^1(mathbbR)$and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.
Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.
edited Aug 17 at 21:21
peterh
2,16431631
2,16431631
answered Aug 17 at 20:45
H. Tomasz Grzybowski
363
363
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write$L^1(mathbbR)$and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write$L^1(mathbbR)$and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write
$L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write
$L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.â peterh
Aug 17 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
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