Are the Hermite-Gauss functions linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1












The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?







share|cite|improve this question
























    up vote
    5
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?







      share|cite|improve this question












      The Hermite-Gauss functions ($tmapsto H_m(t)e^-t^2/2$) are known to be an orthonormal basis for $L^2(mathbbR)$, a fortiori linearly dense in $L^2(mathbbR)$, and all are in the Schwartz space (and hence in $L^p(mathbbR)$). These functions play an extremely important role in $L^2$ theory, Fourier transform theory, quantum mechanics, and elsewhere. I've never seen it mentioned whether or not the Hermite-Gauss functions are linearly dense in $L^1(mathbbR)$ - and, more generally, $L^p(mathbbR)$. It seems like a reasonable question to ask but Googling has not led me to an answer one way or another. My guess is that they are, in fact, not linearly dense in $L^p(mathbbR)$ except for $p=2$, but I don't have any clue as to how to prove that. Can anyone point me to this result or maybe give a clue as to why it is or isn't true?









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jul 19 '15 at 18:34









      Cameron Williams

      22.2k43578




      22.2k43578




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
          $$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
          An orthonormal base is given by:
          $$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
          We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
          $$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
          Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.



          For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.



          Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
          $$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
          we have that:
          $$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
          is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:



          $hspace0.5in$enter image description here



          This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 1




            I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 21:46






          • 1




            Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:51






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:56







          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:09






          • 1




            @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
            – Strants
            Aug 17 at 21:59

















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          The ordinary heat equation is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
          $$
          |e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
          $$
          That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.



          The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
          $$
          Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
          $$
          with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
          $$
          T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
          $$
          So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
          $$
          K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
          $$
          which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
          $$
          K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
          expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
          $$
          So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
          $$
          f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:30











          • @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:37










          • Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:38






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:50






          • 1




            Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:36

















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – peterh
            Aug 17 at 21:23










          Your Answer




          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          );
          );
          , "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: false,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );








           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1366780%2fare-the-hermite-gauss-functions-linearly-dense-in-l1-mathbbr%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest






























          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes








          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
          $$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
          An orthonormal base is given by:
          $$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
          We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
          $$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
          Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.



          For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.



          Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
          $$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
          we have that:
          $$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
          is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:



          $hspace0.5in$enter image description here



          This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 1




            I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 21:46






          • 1




            Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:51






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:56







          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:09






          • 1




            @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
            – Strants
            Aug 17 at 21:59














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
          $$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
          An orthonormal base is given by:
          $$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
          We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
          $$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
          Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.



          For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.



          Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
          $$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
          we have that:
          $$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
          is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:



          $hspace0.5in$enter image description here



          This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 1




            I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 21:46






          • 1




            Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:51






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:56







          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:09






          • 1




            @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
            – Strants
            Aug 17 at 21:59












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
          $$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
          An orthonormal base is given by:
          $$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
          We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
          $$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
          Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.



          For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.



          Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
          $$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
          we have that:
          $$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
          is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:



          $hspace0.5in$enter image description here



          This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".






          share|cite|improve this answer














          The functions $g_m(t) = H_m(t),e^-t^2/2 $ just give an orthogonal base of $L^2(mathbbR)$, since:
          $$ int_-infty^+infty f_m(t)^2,dt = 2^m m! sqrtpi. $$
          An orthonormal base is given by:
          $$ f_m(x) = frac1sqrt2^n n! sqrtpi,H_m(x), e^-x^2/2. $$
          We may notice that if $m$ is odd then $int_mathbbRf_m(x),dx = 0$, while:
          $$ int_mathbbR f_2n(x),dx = frac(2n)!n!sqrt2pifrac1sqrt4^n (2n)! sqrtpi=sqrtfrac2sqrtpi4^nbinom2nnapprox sqrt2cdot n^-1/4.$$
          Moreover, we have $left|,f_m(x),right|leqfrac12$ for every $m$ and every $x$, and $f_m$ is essentially zero outside $left[-fracpi2sqrtm,fracpi2sqrtmright]$. So we know the behaviour of our base with respect to $L^1,L^2,L^infty$. By interpolation or other techniques, it is not difficult to check that linear combinations of $f_n$s cannot be dense in $L^1$.



          For instance, we may consider the function $g(x)=frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)(x)$ that belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$.



          Every $f_n$ has a rather large support, so if we compute:
          $$ a_n = int_0^1 g(x),f_n(x),dx $$
          we have that:
          $$ g_N(x)=sum_n=0^N a_n,f_n(x) $$
          is a not-so-bad approximation of $g(x)$ over $[0,1]$, but it has a long tail, such that $g_N(x)$ does not converge to $g(x)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$. To make this argument visually appealing, this is the situation for $N=10$:



          $hspace0.5in$enter image description here



          This non-density argument is even more convincing (at least to me) if we notice that every $g_N$ is an entire function (of order 2) while $g$ is a compact-supported function with a branch-like singularity in a right neighbourhood of the origin. So the fact that $L^2$ and the Schwarz space are mapped into theirselves by the Fourier transform is really crucial for proving the density of the span of the "Hermite base".







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 19 '15 at 23:25

























          answered Jul 19 '15 at 21:30









          Jack D'Aurizio♦

          272k32267632




          272k32267632







          • 1




            I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 21:46






          • 1




            Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:51






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:56







          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:09






          • 1




            @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
            – Strants
            Aug 17 at 21:59












          • 1




            I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 21:46






          • 1




            Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:51






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:56







          • 1




            @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
            – Jack D'Aurizio♦
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:09






          • 1




            @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
            – Strants
            Aug 17 at 21:59







          1




          1




          I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 21:46




          I totally forgot to include the normalization constants. Thanks for the correction. I've seen interpolation but never thought it would apply to this situation. Thanks, Jack!
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 21:46




          1




          1




          Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:51




          Re your last point: you could say the same about $L^2$. Those functions can decay even slower than those in $L^1$.
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:51




          1




          1




          @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
          – Jack D'Aurizio♦
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:56





          @CameronWilliams: you are right, so I deleted that lines. However, consider the following situation: take $frac1sqrtx$ supported on $[0,1]$. This function belongs to $L^1setminus L^2$. Maybe a combination of $f_n$s can approximate $frac1sqrtx$ even uniformly over any compact subset of $(0,1)$, but this combination has a support way bigger than $[0,1]$, so it is not reasonable that this combination approximates $frac1sqrtxcdotmathbb1_(0,1)$ in $L^1(mathbbR)$.
          – Jack D'Aurizio♦
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:56





          1




          1




          @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
          – Jack D'Aurizio♦
          Jul 19 '15 at 23:09




          @CameronWilliams: one just need to compute the coefficients $a_n = int_0^1fracf_n(x)sqrtx,dx$ then plot $sum_n=0^Na_n f_n(x)$ over $[0,2]$ to see that we have a slow convergence on $[0,1]$ and massive tails on $[1,2]$. I wonder if it is the case to include this example in my answer.
          – Jack D'Aurizio♦
          Jul 19 '15 at 23:09




          1




          1




          @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
          – Strants
          Aug 17 at 21:59




          @JackD'Aurizio I'm not the downvoter (and I'm a couple years late), but it seems that your answer only shows that the Hermite polynomials are not a Schauder basis: they could still have a dense span (as is the case in the Stone-Weierstrauss theorem).
          – Strants
          Aug 17 at 21:59










          up vote
          2
          down vote













          The ordinary heat equation is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
          $$
          |e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
          $$
          That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.



          The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
          $$
          Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
          $$
          with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
          $$
          T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
          $$
          So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
          $$
          K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
          $$
          which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
          $$
          K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
          expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
          $$
          So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
          $$
          f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:30











          • @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:37










          • Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:38






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:50






          • 1




            Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:36














          up vote
          2
          down vote













          The ordinary heat equation is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
          $$
          |e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
          $$
          That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.



          The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
          $$
          Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
          $$
          with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
          $$
          T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
          $$
          So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
          $$
          K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
          $$
          which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
          $$
          K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
          expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
          $$
          So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
          $$
          f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:30











          • @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:37










          • Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:38






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:50






          • 1




            Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:36












          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          The ordinary heat equation is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
          $$
          |e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
          $$
          That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.



          The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
          $$
          Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
          $$
          with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
          $$
          T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
          $$
          So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
          $$
          K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
          $$
          which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
          $$
          K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
          expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
          $$
          So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
          $$
          f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          The ordinary heat equation is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial x^2,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          The initial heat distribution is $f$. The ordinary heat kernel is the Guassian, and the resulting time evolution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ is a constractive $C_0$ semigroup on every $L^p(mathbbR)$ for $1 le p < infty$; the fact that it is $C_0$ gives
          $$
          |e^tLf-f|_prightarrow 0 mbox as tdownarrow 0,;; 1 le p < infty.
          $$
          That gives a nice approximation. In fact, this approximation technique goes back to Weierstrass in his original proof of the Weierstrass Approximation Theorem.



          The Hermite functions $h_n(x)=H_n(x)e^-x^2/2$ are the $L^2$ eigenfunctions of
          $$
          Lf = -fracd^2fdx^2+x^2f
          $$
          with eigenvalues $lambda = 2n+1$ for $n=0,1,2,3,cdots$. The Hermite functions $ h_n _n=0^infty$ form a complete orthonormal basis of $L^2(mathbbR)$. The heat equation associated with $L$ is
          $$
          fracpartial Fpartial t=fracpartial^2Fpartial^2x-x^2F,\
          F(0,x)=f(x).
          $$
          This heat equation is better behaved in many ways than the ordinary heat equation because $-x^2F$ pulls heat out of the system near $pminfty$ for positive $F$. The time evolution solution operator $T(t)=e^tL$ in this case is
          $$
          T(t)f = sum_n=0^inftye^-(2n+1)t(f,h_n)h_n.
          $$
          So the approximation problem by Hermite functions is closely related to the continuity properties of the heat solution at $t=0$. That's why one studies the Hermite kernel function
          $$
          K(r,x,y)=sum_n=0^inftyr^nh_n(x)h_n(y),
          $$
          which has an explicit representation as a bivariate Gaussian:
          $$
          K(r,x,y) = frac1sqrtpi(1-r^2)
          expleft-frac14frac1-r1+r(x+y)^2-frac14frac1+r1-r(x-y)^2right.
          $$
          So the approximation problem can be studied by looking at the question
          $$
          f;; ? = ?;; lim_rdownarrow 0int_-infty^inftyK(r,x,y)f(y)dy = lim_rdownarrow 0sum_n=0^inftyr^n(f,h_n)h_n(x).
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 21 '15 at 11:03

























          answered Jul 19 '15 at 21:39









          DisintegratingByParts

          56k42373




          56k42373











          • This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:30











          • @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:37










          • Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:38






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:50






          • 1




            Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:36
















          • This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:30











          • @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:37










          • Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:38






          • 1




            @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Jul 19 '15 at 22:50






          • 1




            Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
            – Cameron Williams
            Jul 19 '15 at 23:36















          This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:30





          This is really interesting, never would have thought to appeal to the heat equation, but I have one qualm. In your last line, are you suggesting that they are in fact dense in $L^p$? Also, are you missing a factor of $r$ (or something) in your expression for $K$ to account for the $-t$ part in the exponent?
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:30













          @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:37




          @CameronWilliams : I left that open, but was guessing that the evolution equation probably did lead to a $C_0$ semigroup. I'm surprised that it wouldn't. Usually such physical problems are very well-posed. You must get pointwise convergence as $tdownarrow 0$ for any smooth $f$.
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:37












          Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:38




          Hmm. Interesting. I guess that means that yours and Jack's answers are conflicting. I'll have to think about this some more.
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:38




          1




          1




          @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:50




          @CameronWilliams : I don't think that conclusion would follow. Superficially speaking, there's a conspicuous lack of $L^p$ information out there. So I wouldn't be hasty to conclude anything. We could guess that the basis is not going to be a Schauder basis of $L^1$.
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Jul 19 '15 at 22:50




          1




          1




          Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 23:36




          Ahh so it takes $L^p$ data and turns it into an $L^2$ function? That's still pretty neat. Don't delete your answer. It's quite beautiful.
          – Cameron Williams
          Jul 19 '15 at 23:36










          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – peterh
            Aug 17 at 21:23














          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – peterh
            Aug 17 at 21:23












          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Hermite functions are dense in $L^1[mathbbR]$, but we cannot use coefficients computed as above. Every $L^1[mathbbR]$ function can be approximated in $L^1[mathbbR]$ by continuous bounded functions of compact support - so they are also in $L^2[mathbbR]$ and can be approximated by linear combinations of Hermite functions.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 17 at 21:21









          peterh

          2,16431631




          2,16431631










          answered Aug 17 at 20:45









          H. Tomasz Grzybowski

          363




          363











          • Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – peterh
            Aug 17 at 21:23
















          • Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
            – peterh
            Aug 17 at 21:23















          Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
          – peterh
          Aug 17 at 21:23




          Welcome on the MathSE! Note, this site supports Latex, just write $L^1(mathbbR)$ and you get $L^1(mathbbR)$.
          – peterh
          Aug 17 at 21:23












           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


























           


          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1366780%2fare-the-hermite-gauss-functions-linearly-dense-in-l1-mathbbr%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest













































































          這個網誌中的熱門文章

          tkz-euclide: tkzDrawCircle[R] not working

          How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

          1st Magritte Awards